The other answers are correct, but also, to put in relative terms, think of how the spanish word their sentences: with the noun in front of the adjective instead of vice versa, the way we do it. For instance:
Chica Bonita (pretty girl) or literally, girl pretty.
They do this so that there are never surprises. You are always following the conversation or text. If someone said to you "He was seen with a great big, giant, shiny, red.... car." You might have guessed it was apple, bike, cell phone, etc. But in Spanish, the noun would have come first so you could understand the direction of what was going on.
2006-08-13 09:06:02
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answer #1
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answered by Lydia 3
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It makes a good number of expertise, relatively. study here 3 lines outloud: "you probably did that to her." "you probably did that to her!" "you probably did that to her?" now and back, whilst conversing out loud, the sole difference between an person-friendly sentence, an exclamation, and a query is the place you place the emphasis. by utilising putting the punctuation mark up front, it relatively is simpler for a reader to comprehend on the commencing up a thank you to emphasise the words. a good number of languages do comparable issues - as an occasion, Latin places specific words first in a query and final in a sentence. French is comparable, in that questions in many cases initiate with a verb. So English is the oddball, via fact we do exactly each and every thing a similar!
2016-11-04 12:08:20
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Many languages indicate a question by changing the order of the words or by using an indicator word like a form of "do".
Example (English): He goes home - Does he go home?
In Spanish the word order is always the same and no auxiliary words are used. So, to indicate that a sentence is a question, the "¿" is placed in front of it.
Example: Él se va a casa - ¿Él se va a casa?
2006-08-13 10:01:15
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answer #3
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answered by Hi y´all ! 6
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It is put before because, in a long phrase, you already know it
is a question and it allows you to punctuate accordingly during
the reading. The Spanish accentuate tone of speech during a
question and if they only see the question mark at the end, it
is too late!
2006-08-13 06:17:26
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answer #4
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answered by Ricky 6
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The tone of voice changes when asking a question in Spanish. The ¿ is simply an indication that a question is coming.
2006-08-13 05:53:19
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answer #5
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answered by quierounvaquero 4
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To indicate to the reader that a question is forthcoming. When th question mark is only at the end, it may confuse people (especially people reading lines for a play where inflection counts)
2006-08-13 05:50:04
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answer #6
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answered by DonSoze 5
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For indication of intonation purposes...when you are reading you should be able to know how to intonate what you are saying before you begin saying it. For instance: when you start asking a question, you would automatically heighten your voice instead of only at the end of the question when you realize the question is there.
2006-08-13 11:59:09
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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To indicate that a question is coming. Same thing with exclamation marks.
2006-08-13 05:49:38
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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When written, this alerts the reader that the next sentence is a question.
2006-08-13 09:38:09
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answer #9
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answered by Ananke402 5
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the medical profession put the question mark first...it is the most logical place to put it.................i want to know how to get it upside down though
2006-08-13 06:08:47
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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