Which parts of the King James version of the bible is god's words, and which are man's?

Question

It's been suggested, for example, that the word 'poisoner' has been changed by king james to 'witch' (Exd 22:18). Is this true, and if so, what other parts were written by man?

rangedog, read the responses to my question on witches, and all will be revealed unto you

You're right about that actor, but what about me? I'm 6 foot 3, he is only 5 foot 11 for heaven's sake.

Answer 1

the only part of any bible that literally came from god was the torah at mt sinai (genesis, exodus, leviticus, numbers and deuteronomy). everything else was written by men but was perhaps god-inspired.

Answer 2

There are many places where things have been added to or removed from the bible. Look at this verse for example:
Rom 8:1 There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
The words 'who walk not after the flesh but after the spirit' were added to the text.
The word you refer to translated 'witch' and another word translated sorceror are actually translated from pharmakia and pharmakos one of which means poisoner or drug dealer, the other means drug user.
The chapters and verse were added, as was punctuation, chapter headings, margin notes and paragraph markings.
The word jehovah in the new testament was replaced with kurios and adonai meaning Lord.
The list goes on. The only way to know is to study to rightly divide it. To check using such materials as the works of EW Bullinger, Strongs and others to help locate the changes and remove or repair them. It is a long process that many men have tried to do.
The authorised version helps because the itlic words help show where words are added to the text.
For example Genesis Chapter 1 where Verse 1 says 'God in the beginning created the heavens and the Earth.'
Then verse 2 says 'And the earth was (no italics) without form and void and darkness was (italics) upon the face of the deep.
Here the translaters added the second was because no such hebrew word exists. There is only the hebrew word to become. The first word was is not in italics and it is this word that should be translated to become.
Thus Genesis 1:1 and 2 reads:
God in the beginning created the heavens and the Earth.
And the Earth became without form and void and darkness upon the face of the deep.
This denotes a passage of time between these two verses and answers all the questions on the age of the Universe and the Earth. Because we do not know how much time. It doesn't say. But sometime between God creating it, and the darkness on the face of the deep it became without form and void.
You see, it makes a big difference when we rightly divide it because then we get truth from error.

Answer 3

The KJV was the versoin interpreted into Latin from the Torah (Old Testment). However, anyone who studies Hebrew,will tell you, there are differences between the 2.

The New Testament was written by the early 1st century church. The Jews did not include this doctrine in their bible (Torah)

Yes the Hebrew word "M'khasephah' means "someone who malevolently uses spoken curses to hurt people". (Even Christians can curse people)

And 'Pharmakeia', is properly translated as "poisoner", as the word was commonly used to describe malicious use of drugs as in poisons (a murderer) Mistranslated as the English word "Witch/Sorceror".

The entire bible was written by man. Just the writers felt that they were 'inspired' by God to write what they did.

However, as a bible college grad, I will tell you, that many of the stories of the bible were stories rewritten from earlier cultures, and just changed to suit their religious beliefs & Hebrew culture.

It is true that Judism & Chrisitanity have Pagan DNA........

Archeological digs have found older documents that tell the same stories as the bible, with the names of their Deities.

Answer 4

The Bible has been translated again and again. There are several translations that are questionable, like the poisoner into witch. So, all of the present Bible is man's words, but they are translations of what is supposedly God's word. I think that you have to take the lesson from the Bible without the actual incident. The Bible is not meant to be taken literally.

Answer 5

The Bible is the divine word of God. However it was transcribed by the very fallible man. Man is not perfect, nor is he supposed to be. The Word of God was amended, if you will, to fit the available text and interpretations of the group of men that wrote it down. It was often referenced and brought in line with local taboos, customs, and ideology. And remember the KJV was also made to agree with political and gender specific issues of it's time. While often thought to be the most "accurate" of Bibles it is impossible for "fallible man" to know for certain. We must respect it and honor it with divine reverence, but also take some issues with a due grain of salt lest we get lost in the words, and not the true meaning.

Answer 6

The KJV is the best English translation of the Bible. It is all God's Word.. written with man's hand, by the inspiration of the Lord.

Answer 7

Every Bible I have uses the word witch or sorceress.
I have lots of different Bibles.

Who suggested this?

Also, just how much different would the message be if the 'poisoner' was used?

Answer 8

Your question...if a serious one...really has more to do with translation or interpretation than it has to do with the OP question you posed...which makes it sound as if we are comparing a Bible that God actually spake...compared to a Bible where man wrote what man thought God spake.

I won't even get into what might be factual or not as this would be a forum unto itself.

Answer 9

depending on how you look at it, it is just man's intepretations of god's word. during the middle ages, the bible was copied BY HAND by ILLITERATE monks. some people also manipulated the system and put in what they wanted people to believe. so believe what you want because you will never get an completly accurate edition

Answer 10

The fact of the matter is, it is a who cares because the KJV has been scrutinized again and again after going back to the original greek and there really isn't a problem with the KJV version.