He was rich and a memeber of the most powerful clan in the pagan arab community of Meccuh. I find it hard to believe he was really too poor to learn how to read or write. Where is the PROOF?
2006-08-12 08:37:53 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Every Arabic word must be spelled phoeneticly. That means if you pronounce it the same, it is OK to spell it any way you want. Why should Arabs dictate how we spell the phoenetic equivelants of their words? Duh!
2006-08-12 08:51:25 · update #1
once again Sherzade has polluted my list of answers with insults and profanity. What a shining example of a loving peaceful Muslim!
2006-08-12 08:53:45 · update #2
Religions needs miracles, that is all !
2006-08-12 08:41:50 · answer #1 · answered by Moosty 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Muhammad lived at the turn of the seventh century (around the year 600). He was a successful businessman, and an accomplished poet. It was not unusual in his time to be illiterate. Most scholars do believe Muhammad was illiterate, but this did not mean he was stupid.
2006-08-12 15:43:51 · answer #2 · answered by Dr. D 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
What's wrong with being illiterate if you belong to an ancient culture? NOBODY was literate in those days except for the Greeks and Romans. There is no Book of Jesus in the Bible, very possibly because Jesus didn't know how to read or write himself. Good thing for him his followers sure as hell knew how to. *lol*
2006-08-12 15:44:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
thank u for asking
yes he was illiterate,learning in the early Arab began community was not necessary as much as bravery,and chivalry.and yes he was poor although he was one of the most powerful family in maccah coz at that time ppl were made the chief of the tribe through his wisdom ,& his good deeds ,and what he had done for his tribenot through his money.
i hope i satisfy u with my answer.
to learn more about his ancestors & how they became the most powerful family in the arabian penensula search in google about the history of the grandsons of abraham from ishmail.
2006-08-12 15:53:09 · answer #4 · answered by sarah 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Brother, we don't need to go back 1400 years to find this out. I personally know 10s of people who are very successful people who can't even sign their name yet are doing great of what they are doing.
People of that time didn't spend too much time in learning reading and writing skills. They didn't have any need for it. What was needed in that time was how to stay alive.
2006-08-12 15:47:12 · answer #5 · answered by Mesum 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Where is the proof Jesus could write? If he could wouldn't he have written the Bible himself? What about Buddah, could he read and write? Does it matter, considering until relatively recently normal everyday people didn't need to be literate.
2006-08-12 15:44:56 · answer #6 · answered by Mordent 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You don't know anything about Arabic society pre Islam. You are totally ignorant and extremely childish
2006-08-12 18:03:21 · answer #7 · answered by Aissa 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes he was illiterate, and its not about being rich or poor.God made him so, to be a miracle. Cauze if he was not illiterate people was going to say that he made up the holy Quraan (that he wrote it), and they was going to say that hes a poet and stuff like that.
2006-08-12 15:49:27 · answer #8 · answered by kuky 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus went to the synagogue and he was illiterate as well. His father's carpentry business was good but Jesus couldn't write, he may have known basics like writing his name and the alphabet, however, he was illiterate.
2006-08-12 15:43:52 · answer #9 · answered by Desert Queen 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
YES HE WAS. But you also to seem very illiterate, how far did you achieve in your studies? junior school?
2006-08-12 17:19:15 · answer #10 · answered by Abularaby 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
did they need writing as much in those days? i think it was a relatively new thing around then
2006-08-12 15:51:22 · answer #11 · answered by rufus shinra 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋