The bible suggests that god was quite capable of taking out people he didn't like without human help. Why didn't he do it himself instead of getting humans to break his commandments? There seems general agreement that it is not god's usual MO to use humans to commit genocide, see my previous question on the Holocaust
1Sam.15
[1] Samuel also said unto Saul, The LORD sent me to anoint thee to be king over his people, over Israel: now therefore hearken thou unto the voice of the words of the LORD.
[2] Thus saith the LORD of hosts, I remember that which Amalek did to Israel, how he laid wait for him in the way, when he came up from Egypt.
[3] Now go and smite Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and spare them not; but slay both man and woman, infant and suckling, ox and sheep, camel and ***.
2006-08-11
13:08:11
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7 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
That's clasic dehumanisation, malek, you would have made a very good stormtrooper. The Amelakites only sin was to defend themselves against the invading Jews. Sound familiar?
2006-08-11
14:34:17 ·
update #1