These seem to be an attempt to limit my inteligence with another persons ignorance.
As an example of this type of logical fallicy would one of these be a good example for a theist?
We couldn't posibly know is the same as saying we could not posibly belive.
OR
We are not ment to know is the same as saying we are not ment to belive.
Please note that no religion is implied in this qusestion. It is merely a request of what you think would be a good way to explain this type of logical fallicy to a theist.
2006-08-10
23:33:32
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8 answers
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asked by
upallnite
5
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Ethan,
Is that like trying to define nothing? AKA once you define nothing it becomes something and you are still left with what is nothing.
2006-08-10
23:40:08 ·
update #1