has moved out after? has moved out since?

Question

Is the second sentence correct? Why or why not?
My brother doesn't live with us. He has moved out after he got married.

If it's not correct, then why do we say “He has moved out after he graduated.” or “He has moved out after he found a job.”?

What if “after” is replaced with “since”?
My brother doesn't live with us. He has moved out since he got married.

Thanks in advance.

Answer 1

None of your "he has moved out after..." sentences sound right to me. (I'm a native speaker and English teacher.) "Has moved" is the present perfect and is used:
for an action/state that started in the past and continues to now (makes no sense for "moving out" which only takes a finite amount of time)
or for an action state in the past, the effects of which continue to the present. This one makes sense for "moved out" but (at least I find) the "after" phrase makes it sound odd. Perhaps it is too close to being a time marker--since he graduated, found a job or got married at a specific time--given that this use of the present perfect CAN NOT be used with a time marker.

"Since he got married" can be either a time marker OR (and this is how I would understand it in your sentence) a reason marker (the same as "because he got married") and so it's okay here.

Answer 2

He moved out after he got married
or
He has moved out since he got married.

(the first implies the moment it happend, whereas the second is a past action that is still in effect. For example, You can say: He moved out after he got married, but he's come back since he divorced).