2006-08-10 08:58:09 · 35 answers · asked by 100Hertz 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
When both sex organs are present, only one and sometimes neither is able to function as a reproductive organ.
It is much more likely that Mary had been raped possibly by a roman soldier and she was afraid to tell her family and Joseph. She was probably around 14 years of age when this occurred and was not very mature. Mary may have also suffered from mental illness, but we can never know for sure.
2006-08-10 09:07:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
The Bible is a fictional work and fiction is based on the imagination and not necessarily fact. The Bible's virginal character of Mary wasn't a hermaphrodite, which is an organism that has both male and female sex organs. According to the fictitious Bible, she became pregnant with the self-proclaimed Son of God through a "miracle" via God.
In "real" life, it's unlikely Mary or any other alleged hermaphrodite could internally conceive. In nature, where hermaphroditism is the norm, there are mechanisms in place that make it improbable for self-fertilization to occur.
2006-08-10 09:23:54 · answer #2 · answered by Big D 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Fair Question.
No, Mary did not.
GOD Created the Conception for Mary.
If you haven't had your Spirit Recreated, it is impossible to Believe this Spiritual Fact.
ADAM had both Male and Female. Didn't work. Then GOD put Adam to Sleep and took out the Female and made a Woman (Man with the Womb).
The Race of Mankind is Male and Female now.
Why did GOD try it out first? Don't know, HE can do what HE want's to, you'll have to ask HIM cause HE hasn't told me yet.
Hope this helps.
2006-08-10 09:17:52 · answer #3 · answered by maguyver727 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If you're asking "was mary a hermaphrodite" that's a possibility. However, herms are not only sterile, but impotent as well.
So the answer is; No.
2006-08-10 09:05:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
That just doesn't happen. Here's a thought maybe she got knocked up and she didn't want to be stoned so she said it was immaculate conception.
2006-08-10 09:08:24 · answer #5 · answered by Krissy 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Wow wot a theory!
But after all just another theory.
U have 2 have faith I guess 2 stop questioning what is unimportant!
He did his job. Influenced a lot of people & still is even now, 2,000 years later.
Think there must B some truth in Faith.
2006-08-10 09:06:27 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Wow, this is a first.
I think I'm gonna go with no since hermaphrodites are sterile.
You keep thinking though!!!
2006-08-10 09:05:06 · answer #7 · answered by Lotus Phoenix 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
There is no record of this. Mary was a normal woman who had many other children, aside from Jesus.
2006-08-10 09:01:26 · answer #8 · answered by Yngona D 4 · 2⤊ 3⤋
no, Jesus was concieved by mary thru the Holy Spirit, God blessed her and gave her a child
2006-08-10 09:10:39 · answer #9 · answered by Jesus Freak 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You are a great example of "Ignorance is Bliss"..., Your happy asking stupid questions, and don't realize how moronic you really show the world that you are.
2006-08-10 09:04:36 · answer #10 · answered by Ricardo C 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋