Does The Bible Say 'Jesus Is God'?

Question

Mark 10:17-18 and Luke 18:18-19

These verses are highlighted because they are most indicative of Jesus' position and real nature. The verse in Mark reads:

"As he [Jesus] was setting out on a journey, a man ran up and knelt before him, and asked him, 'Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?' Jesus said to him, 'Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone." If you analyze this verse in truth you will see that Jesus, quite simply, is not God. If he was, why then would he say "No one is good but God alone"? Jesus did not want to be called "good" because he was not God. That title, as Jesus admits, belongs to none but God.

Answer 1

no,true Bible did not mention that Jesus is God but,people who created this Dilemma were not Christians, they tried to make the Christianity as a miss and they succeed but,they are many Christians who do not believe,as human we think Jesus was messenger sent to illuminate the way of God and the power which he has was given by God,Jesus has no power without God,s help , this power was given to many prophets before Jesus,GOD has the power over all, he is the beginning and the end.If you think and ask God to show you the truth,he will do.

Answer 2

Why would He say that? Simple. He was testing the man to see if he really had faith that He was truly the Son of God. He never said He did not deserve the title or that anyone should not say that of Him but only posed a question to the man to make sure he had the faith that is needed. If you just read on a bit you will see that He was using this as a teaching experience also as the young man was very rich and when he was told to go sell what he had and give to the poor, he went away sad. So Jesus used it to tell those around Him that it is very hard for a rich man to get into Heaven because he loves the money more than God.

Answer 3

There are, however, other scriptures that say the contrary. Here are some:

Acts 2:36: Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

Acts 9:5: And he said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest: it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks.

Acts 10:36: The word which God sent unto the children of Israel, preaching peace by Jesus Christ: (he is Lord of all:)

First, there's Acts 10:36. In this scripture, it is stated that Jesus, who delivered the Word to the children of Israel because of God, is Lord of all. God is Lord of all, but Jesus is called the same thing. That can only lead a person to conclude that Jesus is also God, which is the only way Jesus could be Lord of all things.
Second, there's Acts 9:5. In this passage, Paul encounters Jesus for the first time. Notice, though, that he does not simply call him "Jesus." He calls him "Lord." Though you may argue that Paul was referring to Jesus as "Lord" as a disciple would normally refer to a master, look at what the Bible says about the response. The Bible says, "and THE Lord said..." The article "the" is used before "Lord," which would confirm that Jesus is not a normal master whom his students would refer to as "Lord." The phrase "the Lord" indicates that Jesus is the Lord of all creation, and of all things visible and imperceptible. This confirms that Jesus is God.
Finally, look at Acts 2:36. This scripture says that Jesus, who was crucified, was both Christ AND Lord. He was both.
There is also I Corinthians 12:3, which says that no one can call refer to Jesus as THE Lord except by the Holy Ghost. Throughout the Bible, it has been made clear that, though Jesus and God were separate entities, they are still the same being. They are one.
I can understand the consternation that might be overtaking you at this point, if you believe me. Of course, it is impossible for two seemingly separate entities to be the same thing. I will try, however, to help you understand. Though God and Jesus are seemingly separate, they are still the same. Jesus is only God in the flesh--a human manifestation of the same kind of God. It is only that Jesus donned flesh to die for humanity, because the only payment for sin is the death of a completely sinless person. Though Jesus was God, he wasn't quite God in his fullness. He was also a human. The fact that Jesus was a human and was separate from God would explain why Jesus said that there is none good but God himself--because Jesus, though God, is still human, and, as a human, cannot be called "good" since that title belongs only to God. Confusing? Yes.
Perhaps the beginning of the Book of John might help. The first verse says that in the beginning, "the Word was with God, and the Word was God, and the Word became flesh." Who became flesh? Jesus Christ. Jesus also delivered the Word of God to humanity. Therefore, since Jesus is the Word, and the Word is God, Jesus must be God. It's just a simple use of logic. The Chain Rule, or the Law of Syllogism.

I hope that helped.

Answer 4

Within Christianity, the doctrine of the Trinity states that God is a single being who exists, simultaneously and eternally, as a perichoresis of three persons. God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit. God is one, and the Godhead a single being. The Hebrew Scriptures lift this one article of faith above others, and surround it with stern warnings against departure from this central issue of faith, and of faithfulness to the covenant God had made with them.

Personally I think your analasis of Mark 10:17-18 and Luke 18:18-19 is flawed. Jesus was not denying that he was God. Jesus stated many time in scripture that he was indeed God. Here are a some specific references from the Book of John that both imply that Jesus is God and where Jesus himself states that He is God:

John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

John 1:14 "The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth."

John 1:18 "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known."

John 8:23-24: "You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world. I told you that you would die in your sins; if you do not believe that I am the one I claim to be, you will indeed die in your sins."

John 8:58 "'I tell you the truth', Jesus answered, 'before Abraham was born, I am!'" (I AM is a specific reference to the Old Testament Hebrew name of God)

John 10:30: "I and the Father are one."

John 10:38: "But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father."

Answer 5

The Early Christian-Jews did not regard Jesus as God. They called him Son of God, just as God called David, his son. Because to be called Son of God, it means you are chosen by God to do special mission for Him. Look up in the Baptism and Genealogy written by Luke:3:21-37. See how Adam was described as Son of God.
Early manuscript and even in some parts of Books of the Apostles. Jesus was called Son of Man, meaning he came from the root of Jesse, the Father of David. In Revelation 21 he admitted that he is the bright morning star, the root and offspring of David.
Jesus being the Divine Son of God is the greatest fallacy ever committed by the Roman Catholics. When Constantine the Great (so they say) realized that many Roman citizens are being converted into Catholicism by the Jews, he became afraid that the Empire may not be able to contain them anymore as rebels because they really were growing in numbers and the way they were being threathened is almost similar to the way the Muslims are threathening the world at present. So, what he did was to decree that the official religion of the empire shall be Catholicism. And the reason why Christian-Jews have to break away from them is when he started through the Council of Nicea introducing first, the Trinity, the virgin birth and then the divinity of Jesus as the Son of God. Why? because most Romans like him, were pagans who believed so much in their mythologies of Gods and Godesses that if he radically changes those beliefs, people may revolt against him. and for convinient purposes he established Empire carrying the Catholic faith inTurkey first just in case it will not be acceptable to the Romans until it was safe enough to bring it to Rome in Vatican. Obviously Vatican is so walled in every corner to protect itself from would be "terrorist" of their time.

Answer 6

Jesus is God in the sense that when a man has a son their DNA is the same compairing the two could be like looking at the genetic code of one person. Jesus posses every characteristic of God he is love, he is life, he is selfless and holy etc.

Answer 7

John 10:30

Answer 8

Yes it does. In John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word (Jesus) and the Word (Jesus) was with God and the Word (Jesus) was God. If you read 1 John 1:1-3 it gives explaination of who the Word was.

Answer 9

I've seen quotes before that say as much-I wonder if any Xians here actually see that there are contradictory quotes on that subject (many others too when you look into it). Even if they use 'the Trinity' as an excuse, that verse clearly indicates they are separate beings...beings that share nothing if one can be 'good' and not the other

Answer 10

"However, now Christ has been raised up from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep [in death]. 21 For since death is through a man, resurrection of the dead is also through a man. 22 For just as in Adam all are dying, so also in the Christ all will be made alive. 23 But each one in his own rank: Christ the firstfruits, afterward those who belong to the Christ during his presence. 24 Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. 25 For he must rule as king until [God] has put all enemies under his feet. 26 As the last enemy, death is to be brought to nothing. 27 For [God] “subjected all things under his feet.” But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that it is with the exception of the one who subjected all things to him. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone." (1 Cor. 15:20-28)
If there is one God only there should be proof after going under test he will take care of them and other people benefit too. See http://geocities.com/squeakywheel4peace

Answer 11

Why then did Isaiah call him Emmanuel, which means "God with us." Further more there are many verses in New Testament which calls Jesus God. John chapter 1.