Since Jesus and Joshua in the bible have the same name in Hebrew, Yeshua, why is it that we call one Joshua and the other Jesus? *Just a footnote, Jesus is not the Greek translation of Yeshua, so if you were going to write that please don't.
2006-08-10 07:03:04 · 5 answers · asked by malisimo 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
what do you think about the idea that Jesus is made up from the Babylonian air god Le and the Greek air got Zeus "lezues" Is it then wrong to use the name Jesus since it comes from two pagan god names?
2006-08-10 07:11:24 · update #1
Does it really matter? Call either whatever you choose.
2006-08-10 07:08:02 · answer #1 · answered by ramall1to 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is The Latin (not the greek tanslation of Yeshua) Since christianity is based upon tje mission of Jesus and that christianity grew up in Rome it is the latin version of the name that is used. Joshua remained part of the jewish religion only and so to jews he remained Yeshua apart but as many jews live in English speaking countries they use tha anglicised version of his name, Joshua.
2006-08-10 14:11:29 · answer #2 · answered by malcy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is an English translation, not to be confused with the Old Testament Joshua.
2006-08-10 14:09:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's easy. The New Testament was originally written in Greek, not Hebrew, and it's highly likely then that those who wrote it spoke Greek, not Hebrew.
The name used in Greek for Jesus is, "Iesous", which is pronounced much like "Jesus".
2006-08-10 14:12:32 · answer #4 · answered by lenny 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depending where you stand you call them Jesus, or Joshua. we latin write it Jesus but pronounce it different. I guess it depends on your upbringing and language.
2006-08-10 14:13:54 · answer #5 · answered by Almita79 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋