2006-08-10 04:11:45 · 5 answers · asked by MoreBrandThanContent 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Does that mean Nothingness is also holy? … Does that mean that Nothingness is also wholly Being through Perfection? ... Is that why there is something rather than nothing? … Should Heidegger have been looking for his answer in the Holy Perfection of the Divinity? … Or is this all a bunch of nonsensical linguistic game, as Wittgenstein might have put it?
2006-08-10 04:29:28 · update #1
If I remember the passage correctly, I believe St. Thomas was addressing whether or not God existed spiritually as well as corporeally; if God is indeed the pinnacle of perfection (as Aquinas believed), then being corporeal was not something that was mandated to him, as it is to us, since in Thomistic philosophy our imperfection is what keeps up bound to the flesh.
2006-08-12 12:17:00 · answer #1 · answered by studentofhumanities 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think that he meant that perfection is a concept, not a corporeal being; God doesn't need to "live somewhere" to guide the faithful - people just need faith in the concept for him to have power.
2006-08-10 11:22:16 · answer #2 · answered by drumrb0y 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
LOL. Must have gotten into the Communion Wine that day.
2006-08-10 11:16:29 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe that God is not bound by any determination that man can make.
2006-08-10 11:15:47 · answer #4 · answered by volchick2003 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Meaning that if God can be or do anything, then he can be nothing at all as well.
2006-08-10 11:16:31 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋