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2006-08-09 20:40:20 · 2 answers · asked by howsureyouare 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

It is true that in older days people used sign language together with spoken language to make ideas clear. eg. hand symbols. was this preserved when religious texts where created or all these information lost. if they are lost then is the religious texts incomplete in the sense they do not convey the same meaning as intended? This is especially true in cases of teaching to text.

2006-08-09 20:41:24 · update #1

oral teaching

2006-08-09 20:57:13 · update #2

2 answers

No, many of the original words had meanings that certain signs would have been used with distinguishing their particular usage - this is why it is important that as we read the scripture we allow the Holy Spirit to lead us to its true understanding, so that we can know the differentiations that were used - ex. when Peter and Jesus were having their discussion as to the building of the church - Jesus uses a word that denotes Peter's rock as a pebble implying a small piece of a greater stone, that is implied as he continues saying this rock will come down in three days - had we had the privilege of viewing this conversation, it would have been very clear that the church was not to have been established on such a small pebble, but that the pebble would begin to establish churches on the basis of such a large boulder.

2006-08-09 21:12:29 · answer #1 · answered by dph_40 6 · 0 0

i do agree,
" women without her man is nothing "

" women, without her man is nothing "
" women without her, man is nothing"
" women without, her man is nothing "

i defenitely agree with what you say. we take certain things as per our circumstance and benefits, and say that to others, even if those litreture is worked out by great scholars alone, they too are human so i donot beleive they did convert the exact things. Hats off to you my freind.

2006-08-10 04:40:05 · answer #2 · answered by senthil r 5 · 0 0

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