Not really, no. In the early years (before the Middle Ages, let's say) slavery was not prevelant among the Jews because it was actually quite UNprofitable. They were required by Jewish law to emancipate their slaves every 7th year (the Jubilee year, in accord with God's day of rest), so slavery was really like buying an extraordinarily expensive indentured servant. Not worthwhile. Then afterwards (Middle Ages to 18th century), Jews were really more interested in trying to keep their heads down to avoid persecution. It's possible there was a little slave dealing, but nothing of especial size or significance. And finally in the more modern era (from 18th century to abolishment of slavery), the Jews were already settled in other occupations and didn't have any real direct interest in slavery (they were neither land-owners nor ship-owners, by and large) and so were no more involved (probably less) than the average citizen.
2006-08-09 14:39:20
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answer #1
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answered by Caritas 6
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to purchase up their property fee effectively. In maximum villages, the white europeans have been heavily appropriate with the aid of blood or with the aid of marriage, and it would not happen to any of them who have been sane to poison their fellows to loss of life to purchase up their property. yet Jews have been a small minority and unrelated to the ethnic majority and had so such compunction approximately how they could amass their wealth. additionally the Jewish writings very liberally call for killing non-Jews with a view to take over their land, animals and different property such as you will discover interior the previous testomony and interior the Talmud.
2016-10-01 21:08:51
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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yes Jewish people own slave ships
2006-08-09 13:39:54
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I don't know for certain, but I'd imagine not. for one thing, I don't think they had the social stature to do it!
but, I could very well be wrong.
cheerio
2006-08-09 14:33:35
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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