Jesus is a part of God, a part of the holy trinity as some people call it. God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit are all a part of eachother, but they are all separate from eachother. God the Father is the "commander and chief."
2006-08-09 10:38:42
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Good question,
John 1:1 states: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (King James Version) Later in the same chapter, the apostle John clearly shows that “the Word” is Jesus. (John 1:14) Since the Word is called God, however, some conclude that the Son and the Father must be part of the same God.
Bear in mind that this part of the Bible was originally written in Greek. Later, translators rendered the Greek text into other languages. A number of Bible translators, though, did not use the phrase “the Word was God.” Why not? Based on their knowledge of Biblical Greek, those translators concluded that the phrase “the Word was God” should be translated differently. How? Here are a few examples: “The Logos [Word] was divine.” (A New Translation of the Bible) “The Word was a god.” (The New Testament in an Improved Version) “The Word was with God and shared his nature.” (The Translator’s New Testament) According to these translations, the Word is not God himself. Instead, because of his high position among Gods creatures, the Word is referred to as “a god.” Here the term “god” means “mighty one.”
What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying “the Word was God”? The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os′ (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god.
What did the apostle John mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himself God or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: “No one [“no man,” KJ, Dy] has ever seen God; the only Son [“the only-begotten god,” NW], who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known.” (RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ, the Son? Of course! So, then, was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Toward the end of his Gospel, John summarized matters, saying: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, [not God, but] the Son of God.”—John 20:31
Hope this helps.
2006-08-09 17:34:02
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answer #2
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answered by Frax 4
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Col 1:15 and Rev 3:14 Says Jesus was the first thing God ever created and by means of him all other things in heaven and earth was created. He was with the Almighty God and was called the word. Says with god
Showing two ententies.
Then Jesus was made flesh and dwelt among us.
The bible says to see the almighty you have to be dead.
Yet they saw Jesus.
2006-08-09 17:39:39
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The Bible is just a man-made play script, with several actors God, Devil, Jesus, Satan, Adam, Eve etc, and of course some intriguing imaginary places like Heaven, Hell, Purgatory and Limbo.
I certainly don’t believe in the Bible and I doubt any reasonably intelligent person would either. However, if you view the Bible as a man-made play script, with several actors God, Devil, Jesus, Satan, Adam, Eve, Noah, and so on, then you can certainly start to see a clever interwoven plot, that the audience is unaware of. It’s really just a drama thriller with clever twists.
You see, if you seriously think about it in an unbiased manner, then clearly the actor God in the Bible could really be the Devil, and the audience (religious believers) are being sucked into being the bad guys, who then use religion to get everyone fighting each other.
On the other hand, the more intelligent audience (Atheists) spot the plot and try their best to teach believers that this is just nonsense, stop getting sucked in. Some people have over time decided that the play is real. That's very sad.
2006-08-10 00:13:09
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answer #4
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answered by Brenda's World 4
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Observe closely to what Jesus said: I believe He is saying that He is ascending to his "God" and Mary Magdalene, her "God"
Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to MY God and YOUR God.’”
Other translations say something different. Some are as follows:
1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament, in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London.
1864: “and a god was the Word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London.
1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed, Chicago.
1935: “the Logos was divine.” A New Translation of the Bible, by James Moffatt, New York.
1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz, Göttingen, Germany.
1978: “and godlike sort was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider, Berlin.
1979: “and a god was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Jurgen Becker, Würzburg, Germany.1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.
1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.
1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.
1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.
1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.
1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.
1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.
1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.
1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.
2006-08-09 22:15:35
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answer #5
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answered by BJ 7
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Word = Jesus
2006-08-09 17:35:10
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answer #6
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answered by jessicake 3
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The "word" is representative of Christ in these verses. Meaning that Christ is part of God because he has been there from the beginning. It is just showing that Christ is part of the God-head. God the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit make up the trinity. They are all together one being.
2006-08-09 17:37:07
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answer #7
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answered by Elora 3
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Well what would you call him, he was the first created, he is the witness of God, he is the Word of God.
If he is not God he'll do tell Hell freezes over and I'm not talking about a town in Montana
2006-08-09 17:41:53
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answer #8
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answered by Grandreal 6
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Word is Jesus in this instance. You have to look beyond the OBVIOUS and INTERPRET THE SCRIPTURES. God bless!
John 3:16
-Mrs. Paige
2006-08-09 17:36:22
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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It's just a bunch of meaningless words from a mythical book that can mean just about anything to anybody.
2006-08-10 15:34:33
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answer #10
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answered by ? 5
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