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Ok, hypothetically, if we go to a country that has God's Laws, God's morality, and I own slaves and I beat my slave but he lives and you wanted to punish me and I said: Exodus 21:20-21 (NKJV) “And if a man beats his male or female servant with a rod, so that he dies under his hand, he shall surely be punished. 21 Notwithstanding, if he remains alive a day or two, he shall not be punished; for he is his property.

And I beat my slave but my slave lifes and I stop those who want to punish me by saying God's law in Exodus 21:20-21 permits me to do this,

Is this moral? Is this legitimate?

Someone in one of my questions yesterday asked do I see a lot of Christians owning slaves? Not with my eyes but I see on the news about a lot of sex slave trade going on around Earth right now, do you think the master beats the sex slave to within an inch of her life and then hides behind Exodus 21:20-21?

God Law, God's morality. Praise God?

2006-08-09 07:55:53 · 24 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

24 answers

Jim, you are confusing moral law with civil law. The verse you cite has nothing to do with moral attitudes/relations...it is about civil laws and a justice system. If you study history and the culture of that time, slavery was universally practiced. Some slaves were "foreign captives", and others were slaves by choice (as a form of employment). Though it sounds harsh for 21st century ears, the Mosaic law was actually far advanced for its time. Most cultures of that day had NO punishment for killing a slave. I find it strange that some historians will praise Hammurabi for his ethics...yet Moses, who surpassed Hammurabi in moral justice, is vilified.

Christians believe the Bible is inspired. That does not mean that every individual (even the Patriarchs) are paragons of virtue. It is merely an accounting of what those individuals said and did. If you are looking for perfection in any individual (be it in attitude, action, or statement) you won't find it in any human. And on that point, the Bible is pretty clear...

2006-08-09 08:23:19 · answer #1 · answered by Seven 5 · 3 0

It's not moral or legitimate to beat a slave within an inch of his or her life and hide behind Exodus 21:20-21 to escape punishment.

The slave has to be able to get up again and be able to work in a day or two. Just surviving isn't enough. If you beat your slave severely but not enough to kill him and your slave is unable to work for at least a couple days, then you're still punished. Also,
take a look at verses 26 and 27. If the slave loses his eye or tooth, he is to go free.

The slavery that was permitted in Exodus 21 is nothing like the sex-slave industry of today. And if a master beat a sex slave within an inch of her life, the master would not be able to hide behind Exodus 21:20-21.

God's law and God's morality are much more just and merciful than you give them credit for. Praise God? Absolutely.

2006-08-09 09:04:05 · answer #2 · answered by leo509 3 · 1 0

Wow, way to put the today's world into the context of the Middle East 4000+ years ago.

It was an entirely different world back then. Slavery was a part of life. The Law of Moses attempted to deal with the reality of the day.

Put it in perspective - for its time, this was probably the only law/code showing ANY compassion or restraint of any kind toward slaves. It was a brutal world in those times.

It's the same thing when people rip on the Roman Catholic church during the dark ages. Was there corruption? Yes, but put it in relation to what else was going on in Europe during that time - the church was, relatively speaking, a beacon of light and hope to the people of the day. It was the only source of learning and education. It was the only thing that kept civilization alive in that part of the world for those many centuries.

2006-08-09 08:05:04 · answer #3 · answered by Open Heart Searchery 7 · 0 0

The Old Testament was the scripture of a past generation. Read Swedenborg's words and see the justification for churches who don't learn much of it:

"As regards the Word particularly, it has existed in every age, though not the Word we possess at the present day. Another Word existed in the Most Ancient Church before the Flood, and yet another Word in the Ancient Church after the Flood. Then came the Word written through Moses and the Prophets in the Jewish Church, and finally the Word written through the Evangelists in the new Church. The reason why the Word has existed in every age is that by means of the Word there is a communication between heaven and earth, and also that the Word deals with goodness and truth, by which a person is enabled to live in eternal happiness. In the internal sense therefore the Lord alone is the subject, for all goodness and truth are derived from Him" (Arcana Coelestia n. 2895).

2006-08-09 07:59:57 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

But if you kill another mans slave you are supposed to pay the cost of the slave, if you harm a slave belonging to another man you are supposed to pay the lost value for the slaves damage and the value of the lost work the slave would have produced. Yes the bible supports slavery and has an awful lot of laws surrounding slavery, especially when the number of laws concerning things we regard as important in a civilized society are so few.
It almost makes me sorry that I am not a Christian

2006-08-09 08:07:15 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

God permitted slavery to exist in both Old and New Testament times. But this does not mean that slavery was a God-ordained system. Slavery was an invention of fallen man, not of God. Nevertheless, God allowed it to exist the way He allows other things to exist that He does not approve of: murder, lying, rape, theft, etc.

God also works within the system of fallen man and makes allowances for the freedom and failures of mankind within that system. We see this, for example, in Jesus saying that God allowed divorce because of the hardness of peoples' hearts (Matt. 19:8). The fact is, people are sinners and do things contrary to the will of God. But, even though people have murdered, lied, raped, and stolen, God has still used people who've committed these sins to accomplish His divine will. Moses murdered an Egyptian but was used by God to deliver Israel. David committed adultery but was promised to have the Messiah descend from his seed. This is proof that though God desires that people not do much of what they do, He permits them their freedom, yet uses the system and the people according to His divine will.

In the case of a slave being property, that is simply the way things were done back then. As I said, God worked within the fallen system of man and put limits and guidelines concerning the treatment of slaves.

So to answer your question, NO a person can't hide behind those verses as justifications for their actions nor as reasons for having slaves.

For more information on the true function and purpose of the law look here:

2006-08-09 08:14:43 · answer #6 · answered by Bruce Leroy - The Last Dragon 3 · 0 0

I doubt very much any of the pimps that have the sex slaves even thinks anything about God or what He would think of it. You have to think about the times this was written also as it was accepted to have slaves then while now it is not. Just told how to treat them if you had them which ideally, you should be kind to them and not beat them at all but if you did, you were not to be too severe with your treatment. At that time it would have been moral but now it would not seem so. Times change but God does not. He would want us to treat slaves, if we had them, as humans and not be so severe with them now either.

2006-08-09 08:07:40 · answer #7 · answered by ramall1to 5 · 0 0

The fact that a book addressed a social problem of its day does in no way refute the accuracy of the book.

First off the law your quoteing was as much civil as religious law, the both intermixing together.

Second.
The old testament law is written for Jews.
Unless your a jew it has nada to do with you.
The 10 commandments that christians want to post all over are written for jews not christians.

2006-08-09 08:04:56 · answer #8 · answered by tiggis2006 3 · 0 0

we also are to OBEY the guidelines of the land the position it does no longer conflict with our relationship w/Yahweh. you're literally not intense, you're merely asking questions. WHY could we favor to possess someone? we are in a position bodied human beings. We now no longer have the farms the position they were necessary. The Mexicans have determined they are going to do their job besides. If we don't love how they do it, we are able to already have them to implement the slavery regulations. then you definately could have your "rights." We Christians are doing the suited we are able to attempting to reveal others to Heaven. that is the in straightforward words job we are required to do. the suited ingredient we are able to do for our usa could be to vote each of the attorneys and those in place of work OUT and commence throughout ideally with a clean get at the same time. Then per chance, merely per chance shall we commence on those amendments.

2016-11-23 17:58:53 · answer #9 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Keeping another human being in slavery is not moral. It's amazing that in 2006 that some still take a 2000 yr old book literally. Sad really.

2006-08-09 08:01:10 · answer #10 · answered by genaddt 7 · 0 0

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