oooOOOH Dr. Phil!
2006-08-08 05:22:22
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answer #1
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answered by saphires77 3
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The term "immaculate conception" refers to Mary, not Jesus. See, Catholics had to explain how Jesus, who supposedly had no sin, could be born of Mary, who of course would have been born with "original sin" like everyone else, and would have passed it on to Jesus. So, they invented the idea that God caused Mary to not have original sin when she was conceived; thus, he kept her "immaculate" at the time of her conception so that she wouldn't pass on her sins to Jesus.
This is not only completely absent from the Bible, but it just points out that if God could take away one person's stain of original sin, he could have done it for everyone, thereby making Jesus' sacrifice unnecessary. In fact, he could have done that right from the moment Adam and Eve sinned, and the world would be a better place now. Do Catholics ever think of these things, or do they just blindly obey whatever comes out of the pope's mouth? That is a rhetorical question, of course--we all know that Catholics don't think.
2006-08-08 05:26:53
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answer #2
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answered by Antique Silver Buttons 5
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Crazy lady,
It is common to associate the virgin birth with Immaculate Conception. They may be similar in definition but they are not the same.
The virgin birth was a prophetic event that those who were familliar with Old Testament prophecy could be expectant of. By saying that, the angel who spoke to Joseph edified the idea in Josephs mind.
Immaculate Conception is Roman Catholic doctrine where according to a Roman Catholic site, means:
In the Constitution Ineffabilis Deus of 8 December, 1854, Pius IX pronounced and defined that the Blessed Virgin Mary "in the first instance of her conception, by a singular privilege and grace granted by God, in view of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Saviour of the human race, was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin."
"The Blessed Virgin Mary . . ." The subject of this immunity from original sin is the person of Mary at the moment of the creation of her soul and its infusion into her body.
In other words, Mary was sinless. There is no evidence that Mary was sinless. Neither are there scriptures where Mary was prayed to. She was the mother of Jesus the man, not the Mother of God, and she was correctly stated, " Blessed amongst women." She gave birth to the Christ after all.
But the tradition of praying to the Queen of Heaven comes from a "Mystery Religion" and that is not Christian.
This is not to say that all Roman Catholics are not Christian. But it is saying that they practice pagan rituals mixed in Christianity.
My sources are below.
2006-08-08 05:31:26
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The Christian idea of a virgin birth is derived from the verse in Isaiah 7:14 describing an "alma" as giving birth. The word "alma" has always meant a young woman, but Christian theologians came centuries later and translated it as "virgin." This accords Jesus' birth with the first century pagan idea of mortals being impregnated by gods.
2006-08-08 05:20:10
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answer #4
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answered by Quantrill 7
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Immaculate conception is when you get your woman pregnant on a night out and have no recollection of it nine months later. permanent relationships are a bit more dubious after all it is not as if she can reverse the situation and have her way while you were sleeping-surely you would notice?
2006-08-08 05:35:54
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answer #5
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answered by fizzycrystal 3
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Er nowadays millions of teenagers have immaculte conceptions due to poor sex ed that does not tell you , that you can get pregnant from semin coated fingers fooling around etc, or splashes and slippls on target even if you are a virgin
2006-08-08 05:37:23
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Better still, if you told a whole bunch of other people, you would be on observation in the nut house before your feet could touch the ground, then social services would take the baby away on grounds of mental instability!
2006-08-08 05:21:51
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answer #7
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answered by Bobbin 3
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Joesph didn't believe her. It was a very difficult time for him. Yet an angel appeared to him also to explain the situation. Maybe if that were to happen the husband would be ok with it.
2006-08-08 05:20:23
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answer #8
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answered by Quinn 2
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No i wouldnt believe her, I would call her a few selected names, and leave her.... As I dont have a god governing me it makes it easier. If there is anyone out there who believes there wife, partner has had s*x with a spirit and is pregnant? I see another question coming on, surley there is no one who would belive this in this day and age.............Bring in my yankee doodle christians...
2006-08-08 05:53:10
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answer #9
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answered by Brittop 2
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Joseph was a man of faith and Jesus's birth fulfilled OT prophecy....it was meant and predicted to happen....either you believed it or you didn't....there were many men in that day in time who would've accused Mary of fornication, too....it had to be just the right man according to God's plan and it was, of course.
2006-08-08 05:21:50
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answer #10
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answered by Kiss my Putt! 7
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Joseph was going to put Mary away for being pregnant. God sent an angel to tell him what was going on and that he should keep Mary as his wife.
If my fiance came up pregnant before were actually married and there was no angel telling me it was okay-she would be history.
2006-08-08 05:22:18
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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