Based on the common principle of Christian sexual abstinence (except for procreation), it seems likely that Jesus would have seen homosexuality as unecessary and something blocking one from seeing the full light of God.
However, it wasn't 'especially' evil, and it's nothing to vehemently crusade against in the name of the Lord.
2006-08-08 04:04:08
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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You must take into consideration that this is the Old Testament. The way people lived and viewed things was drastically different than the way we view things today. If you continue into the New Testament, which is just as important, if not more so, than the Old Testament, you will find that homosexuality is still not acceptable here either. I honestly wish I had time to research this more for you, because I am possitive that I could come up with a great answer. But seriously, there are many books and studies out there that you can read on this subject, and on the subject of slaves in the Bible. I urge you to not twist the words of the Bible. It is the Word of God, and as such demands respect.
I respect you for your honesty and curiosity. I would much rather have this type of discussion than a heated argument. Thanks!
2006-08-08 11:04:17
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Faith is how we trust in the prophets to know what they're telling us is the truth. The Scripture says to "Try the spirits and see whether they are of God." As for Leviticus 18:22, if you think that's the only spin God put on homosexuality, read Romans 1:26-27. In there, you will find that though we're living in the Church age and not the dispensation of Law (when Leviticus 18:22 was written), you'll notice that God's view on the subject didn't change; it even included a PUNISHMENT for this unchecked, unrepentant activity. We don't rely solely on one or two verses of Scripture to defend a viewpoint; we use whatever it takes in the Bible as long as we're able to keep it in context.
2006-08-08 11:08:14
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answer #3
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answered by bigvol662004 6
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Neither God, Moses, Jesus nor his disciples wrote the Bible or any of the Gospels. As a matter of fact, they were all written by various unknown writers spread over a century AD. Many of these "gospels' have conflicting recollection of facts, views and agendas. Finally, the most dominant sect, the modern day Roman Catholic Church decided that the current 4 gospels should be adopted because they are consistent with the church's theological believe. So man wrote the Bible
2006-08-08 13:34:49
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answer #4
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answered by robert S 4
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Absolutely. Taking our entire belief system from Moses and his teachings is ridiculous. You'll get a lot of responses that will refer to the New Testament as further proof of this teaching. the fact is that the belief that homosexuality is a sin cannot be resolved using the Bible. There are enough Christian denominations that allow homosexuals to take positions of leadership and be ordained to the priesthood that it's fairly obvious that good Christian believers don't see it as cut and dried as others. Look at the Episcopalians huge shakeup over the issue. This is something that ends up coming down to personal interpretation as informed by the spirit, or whatever source of inspiration you believe in.
2006-08-08 11:05:50
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answer #5
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answered by pelotahombre 3
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For the millionth time today. All you are doing is quoting Old Testament scripture. Do you not know that Christians today live under the New Testament. The Old Law (OT) was done away with at the death of Jesus on the cross. God set up a more perfect covenant in the New Testament. And in his new law homosexuality as well as many other sins are still condemned.
2006-08-08 10:58:33
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answer #6
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answered by ridersinthesky11 2
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Why are you leaving out the scriptures from the Greek scriptures. Leviticus 18:22 is not the only place in the Bible that homosexuality is said to against God's will and purpose. Read Romans 1:24 - 28 Here the Bible speaks of those who practice homosexuality as being "given up" "bodies might be dishonored" "disgraceful sexual appetite" "changing the natural use of themselves" "contrary to nature" "working what is obscene" "God gave them up to a disapproved mental state"
1 Timothy 1:9-11 Please read out of your own Bible - here this scripture speaks of "men who lie with males" as being " in opposition to the healthful teaching"
Jude 7 - here it speaks of the people of Sodom and Gomorrah "gone out after flesh for unnatural use" and "placed before us as a warning example"
There should be no confusion as to how God feels on this matter. The only confusion is that which is being created by human beings. Jehovah has always made his stand clear on this matter and his view has not changed (Malachi 3:6)
It is one thing to practice homosexuality regardless of what the Bible says, it is quite another to call God's word into question with the purpose of justifying the practice of what He clearly views as wrong.
2006-08-08 11:10:38
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answer #7
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answered by Daniel L 2
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How many times does this question need to be asked? God said that He is an unchanging God. He doesn't rely on what's popular. You can attempt to steer around what He has to say about homosexuality but it won't make any difference. The only thing you can change in Gods' mind is how He feels about you. Attempting to twist the scriptures will only keep you confused. He will forgive you if you ask Him sincerely and repent from your sins.
2006-08-08 11:06:36
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answer #8
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answered by Calill C 6
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Jude 7 indicates that Sodom and Gomorrah’s punishment was due to their sexual perversion. Their sin was not simply one of violence (rape) but of sexual immorality (homosexuality). As further evidence of the sinful nature of homosexuality, Leviticus 18:22, and 20:13 both describe homosexuality as “an abomination.”
Need more additions?
2006-08-08 11:00:42
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answer #9
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answered by Yoda Green's Hope 3
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Once again examples of how Christians think that they can pick and choose which parts of the Bible they do and do not have to follow. A Chrisitan answered this question stating that the Old Testament had been "done away with". Who decided that they could "do away with" a huge section of this "Holy" Book that they base their entire religion on? They just form and shape the readings in order to fit their own closed-minded views.
2006-08-08 11:02:16
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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Slaves (Biblical) were basically people that were given jobs by people in the Higher-ups. They were not to be mistreated. They were to be freed after 7 years...and actually were to be treated fairly and with respect.....as any employer should do to their employees.
The slaves that were brought to America, etc (all throughout history there has been slavery) many were mistreated, abused, etc. We are not to treat ANY humans this way...as an underclass....etc....It is all in how we treat people.
2006-08-08 11:07:11
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answer #11
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answered by gracefully_saved 5
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