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Was it before the destruction of the temple in AD 70...before? After?

2006-08-07 22:57:39 · 3 answers · asked by matt k 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

What I had thought is the Bablyonians under the rule of Nebercanezer may have started this period. I have also heard that this period may have taken place after the gosples in the time that the Act were writen

2006-08-09 23:36:00 · update #1

3 answers

The only Biblical reference to the Age of the Gentiles is in Luke 21:24. There is not a hint of any kind as to the when they began or how long they would last. That has not kept people from speculating, however, and down through the centuries, several different dates have been presented as the beginning, usually 607 BCE, 586 BCE or 70CE. Although arguments could be presented for any of these dates, they are all based on speculation and personal interpretation.

When Israel became an independent nation in the year 1948, finally free from Gentile domination, many people feel the Age of the Gentiles were fulfilled.

2006-08-09 16:31:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This was indicated by Jesus’ words: “Jerusalem will be trampled on by the nations, until the appointed times of the [Gentile] nations are fulfilled.” (Luke 21:24) That ‘trampling’ began in 607 B.C.E. when Jerusalem was destroyed and the typical kingdom of God ceased to function in Judah. When would the trampling end? At “the times of restoration of all things,” when divine sovereignty would again be manifested toward the earth through symbolic Jerusalem, the Kingdom of God.—Acts 3:21.

If we were to count 2,520 literal days from Jerusalem’s destruction in 607 B.C.E., that would bring us only to 600 B.C.E., a year having no Scriptural significance. Even in 537 B.C.E., when the liberated Jews were back in Judah, Jehovah’s sovereignty was not manifested on the earth. That was so because Zerubbabel, the heir to David’s throne, was made not king but only governor of the Persian province of Judah.
Since the “seven times” are prophetic, we must apply to the 2,520 days the Scriptural rule: “A day for a year.” This rule is set out in a prophecy regarding the Babylonian siege of Jerusalem. (Ezekiel 4:6, 7; compare Numbers 14:34.) The “seven times” of earth’s domination by Gentile powers without interference by God’s Kingdom therefore spanned 2,520 years. They began with the desolation of Judah and Jerusalem in the seventh lunar month (Tishri 15) of 607 B.C.E. (2 Kings 25:8, 9, 25, 26) From that point to 1 B.C.E. is 606 years. The remaining 1,914 years stretch from then to 1914 C.E. Thus, the “seven times,” or 2,520 years, ended by Tishri 15, or October 4/5, 1914 C.E.

In that year “the appointed times of the nations” were fulfilled, and God gave rulership to “the lowliest one of mankind”—Jesus Christ—who had been considered so base by his foes that they even had him impaled. (Daniel 4:17)

During “the appointed times of the nations,” worldly governments would be allowed to interrupt rulership approved by God. That period began with the destruction of Jerusalem in 607 B.C.E., and Daniel indicated that it would go on for “seven times.” (Daniel 4:23-25) How long is that? The Bible shows that three and a half “times” equal 1,260 days. (Revelation 12:6, 14) Twice that period, or seven times, would be 2,520 days. But nothing noteworthy happened at the end of that short period of time. By applying “a day for a year” to Daniel’s prophecy and counting 2,520 years from 607 B.C.E., however, we arrive at the year 1914 C.E.—Numbers 14:34; Ezekiel 4:6.

If you would like further information, please contact Jehovah's Witnesses at the local Kingdom Hall. Or visit http://www.watchtower.org

2006-08-08 10:09:09 · answer #2 · answered by Jeremy Callahan 4 · 0 0

RIGHT WHEN THEY CTUCIFIED JESUS. His own rejected him causing the gospel to around the world to the gentiles.

2006-08-08 06:08:16 · answer #3 · answered by bungyow 5 · 0 0

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