2006-08-07 10:36:09 · 23 answers · asked by sammy's girl 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Don't remember the exact vs. Jesus writes something in the sand when they bring a prostitute to him.
2006-08-07 10:40:33 · answer #1 · answered by mad_mav70 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Luke 4:16-18 showed Jesus reading in the temple. Perhaps the book of John doesn't show it, but we have more than just the book of John.
2006-08-07 10:50:53 · answer #2 · answered by flyersbiblepreacher 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Jesus I know is the Son of God. He knows all and everything. If you need proof that God can write then we find that in Genesis where God wrote the Ten Commandments on a stone tablet for Moses.
We know that He held the attention of the Scribes in the Temple; and that He taught them to their amazement. What does it matter if there is proof that Jesus wrote anything? Certainly, there is evidence to prove that He did greater things, like healed people, etc.
I hope you find your answer - maybe you are just trying to get us all to read the Book of John! If so, good for U.
Granny
2006-08-07 10:50:47 · answer #3 · answered by pmac 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What for? What does it matter today? Would it make any difference tp anything? Remember, The King James version of the bible was edited by King James of England not GOD.
2006-08-07 10:39:23 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why do you think everything is in the book of John? Most of your questions, predicated on John, did not take place in John, but in Matthew or Luke, the synoptic Gospels (together with Mark). Is this like a riddle or something?
2006-08-07 10:40:05 · answer #5 · answered by RandyGE 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
John 8:6 and 8:8. Jesus writes with his finger on the ground.
(when he is judging the adultress)
The constant reference to him as a Rabbi implies literacy because to be a teacher he would need to be able to read the Torah. (but this is implicit not explicit)
edit: funny that an atheist is the only one so far to get it right.
2006-08-07 10:53:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is hard to say. But in those days many people had scribes becasue they could not read and write. The King James version was so mistranslated, we may never know.
2006-08-07 10:41:53 · answer #7 · answered by JENNLUPE 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Book of John was written to be pro Roman. It was likely written by a Roman sympathiser after the Jewish temple was destroyed by the Romans.
My opinion.
2006-08-07 10:39:39 · answer #8 · answered by willberb 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope. Luke. Chapter 4, verses 16 though 17.
2006-08-07 10:43:05 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Here's some from Luke 4:16-21:
"And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up for to read.
2006-08-07 10:43:32 · answer #10 · answered by Rjmail 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The King James version took a lot of liberties on a lot of stuff.
2006-08-07 10:39:08 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋