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in America the wife is entitled to a settlement from her husband especially if there are children involved does that apply to this country too?

2006-08-06 18:11:14 · 13 answers · asked by f.harrison 2 in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

only i was for five years have a daughter and did not get anything at the end of the waste of time that was a marriage- thank God it's over though!.

2006-08-09 09:11:23 · update #1

13 answers

Yes. In the UK the divorce proceeds along two routes.

One deals with the termination of the marriage, the other handles the financial settlement. This isn't yet an automatic 50/50 split. The length of the marriage, and issues such as Children are the main factors.

2006-08-06 18:30:04 · answer #1 · answered by 'Dr Greene' 7 · 1 0

Its attainable that a sturdy criminal professional ought to argue that your husband has to coach that all of the proceeds are his. In different words if, for the period of the time he became into injured, you paid his costs, paid for his medicals or paid for his coverage; then its attainable to make an argument which you have an interest interior the settlement. the different situation here is whether or no longer Indiana segregates own harm reimbursement such that it entirely belongs to the injured better half. ultimately and extra importantly, his settlement will impression different factors of belongings branch. working example in case you have been a stay at homestead mom, then this would be taken under consideration whilst it comes all the way down to lump sum divisions of factors and his potential to pay alimony to you, besides as new child help. in simple terms as a results of fact he gets to maintain all of it, does not propose he gets that and one million/2. it actual relies upon on the regulation, the criminal professional, the decide and the appellate technique.

2016-09-28 23:55:37 · answer #2 · answered by kinjorski 4 · 0 0

I have just gone through a divorce and have a 3 year old son which we adopted when he was 6 months old. My ex does not acknowledge him as his son and I have submitted all the paperwork to the court to inform them of this. I do not want anything from my ex and he is waving his parental rights. The best place for you to get information would be at www.hmcourt-service.gov.uk. You will find all teh documents and information that you need for the United Kingdom.

2006-08-11 21:16:09 · answer #3 · answered by ladybird 1 · 1 0

Yes, the wife is entitled to a settlement and why shouldn't she be, as long as she has contributed to the relationship, and that doesn't have to mean financially.

2006-08-13 19:53:23 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I was divorced by my wife without my prior knowledge, the fact she went behind my back and cruelly made statements that were untrue, she was awarded the home and everything because my children were so young. I walked away with my old work car and my tools of my trade, that was 1994. Things are different now you can protect yourself by law.

2006-08-12 15:04:56 · answer #5 · answered by Mosez 4 · 1 0

Yes, but did you ever try getting blood from a stone?
Half of all divorces would not take place if there were no financial problems.

2006-08-14 04:20:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Its funny how they put it but the only guarantee is child support.But it really is all up to you guys and the judge. Technically you are suing each other to get a divorce.

2006-08-14 14:27:00 · answer #7 · answered by Charity 2 · 1 0

Of course the secret is believe me get a good lawyer

2006-08-06 18:23:42 · answer #8 · answered by Brenda A 1 · 1 0

yes

2006-08-14 12:23:14 · answer #9 · answered by Lovable in nc 2 · 1 0

yes

2006-08-13 22:52:10 · answer #10 · answered by lizzie 3 · 1 0

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