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And, the difference between an even and odd numbers always result in odd number. Agree ?

2006-08-06 08:30:39 · 13 answers · asked by tjoyce71 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

13 answers

yes.
even numbers 2n - 2p = 2(n-p)
odd (2n+1) - (2p+1) = 2n - 2p = 2(n-p)

ah
even - odd = 2n - (2p+1) = 2(n-p) -1 is odd

what else do you want to know ?.

2006-08-06 08:33:48 · answer #1 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 1 0

Yes. The rules are very simple in this case:

(Odd ± Odd) = Even

Reason:

For a number to be odd, it has to have an extra 1 that makes it unable to divide perfectly by 2. Any two such odd numbers when added will combine their residual ones, which add to 2, so the resulting sum or difference of any two odd numbers will be even in all cases.




(Odd ± Even) = Odd

Reason:

An even number always divides perfectly by 2. If any odd number is added to or subtracted from an even number, then the resulting sum or difference is always odd, since adding or subtracting will produce a result that is always ±1 away from being an even number,





An odd number of odd values always sums to an odd result and an even number of odd values always sum to an even result.

Any number of even values always produces an even sum.

2006-08-06 08:45:09 · answer #2 · answered by Jay T 3 · 0 0

Yes. Think of odd numbers as multiplying negative numbers too and you'll have the same result (except the negative numbers turn out to be positive).

2006-08-06 08:37:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

yes, except when the difference you end up with is 0. Zero is mostly defined an even number. However, if you go to Las Vegas and play roulette, a bet on "even" loses when a 0 comes up.

2006-08-06 10:11:49 · answer #4 · answered by Alan19 2 · 0 0

Let n,m,p,q be Integers.
Difference of two even numbers: 2n - 2p = 2(n - p). Let m = n - p
imples 2n - 2p = 2m (EVEN)
Dfference of two odd numbers: (2n + 1) - (2p + 1) = 2n + 1 - 2p - 1 = 2n - 2p = 2m (EVEN)
Difference of even and odd number: 2n - (2p + 1) = 2n - 2p -1 = 2m - 1. let m = q +1
implies 1n - 2(p + 1) = 2(q + 1) - 1 = 2q + 2 - 1 = 2q + 1 (ODD)
So yes I agree

2006-08-06 10:12:48 · answer #5 · answered by hackmaster_sk 3 · 0 0

Agreed.

2006-08-06 08:36:47 · answer #6 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0 0

Yes it Does!

2006-08-06 11:16:32 · answer #7 · answered by orangeyellowjess 1 · 0 0

Good job dude.

2006-08-06 08:49:39 · answer #8 · answered by Deejay 3 · 0 0

sounds like a stabe theory, what would einstine do

2006-08-06 08:35:50 · answer #9 · answered by Ray M Be (Bay) 3 · 0 0

no matter how many times you try it it always works out...

2006-08-06 15:30:16 · answer #10 · answered by wizard 4 · 0 0

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