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if a foot long ruler is 12 inches long and the gradtiant is divisable by the number of 0's on a 100dollar bill then why does pi divide perfectly into itself by 34? um smarty pants ? answer me that!

2006-08-06 06:36:50 · 6 answers · asked by steve b 5 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

π ÷ π = 1.
Perfect!

34 ÷ π = 10.8225361302488828322840959...
π ÷ 34 = 0.09239978392911156583713657...
...ummmm, not so perfect.

2006-08-06 07:17:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

When you say why does Pi divide perfectly into itself by 34, I'm going to ignore the word "itself" since anything can divide into itself to get 1. I'm going base my response as if you asked why can pi divide perfectly by 34.

It doesnt.

Pi is an irrational number that has an infinite number of (so far as we can tell) completely random digits.

Pi goes something like 3.1415926538 something something. Not only is it smaller than 34 (meaning that it's not going to divide well in the first place), but it has infinite digits, and it will still have infinite digits after the division.

2006-08-06 06:41:10 · answer #2 · answered by ymingy@sbcglobal.net 4 · 0 0

pi divided by pi equals 1

π ÷ π = 1

but pi divided by 34 or 34 divided by pi. Does not divide into 34 or 34 divided by pi.

π ÷ 34 = 0,92399784

34 ÷ π = 10.82253613

2006-08-06 08:05:50 · answer #3 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 0 0

pi divided perfectly into itself, because it is the same number as itself. All numbers divide perfectly into themsleves.

And the answer is always 1.

2006-08-06 06:41:07 · answer #4 · answered by MrEkitten 3 · 0 0

pi can't divide perfectly into 34. The only time pi can be divided perfectly is when it is divided by itself... smelly pants.

2006-08-06 06:43:30 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

pi DOE NOT divide perfectly into itself by 34, no mater how much pot you smoke.

2006-08-06 06:40:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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