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Before the outbreak of the Mexican War of Independence in 1810, Texas was a part of the Spanish colony of New Spain. Texas was then part of Mexico (as a part of the state of Coahuila y Tejas). The Rio Grande and South Texas areas had a history of independence movements by the local Mexican and especially Anglo-Mexican population, on account of unitary and perceived dictatorial and unconstitutional practices by the central Mexican government. Northern and East Texas, meanwhile, remained largely in the hands of Native American tribes, some of whom were hostile to Mexican rule.

2006-08-05 09:27:10 · 21 answers · asked by Yes & No 3 in Politics & Government Immigration

In the years following the Louisiana Purchase and the acquisition of New Orleans by the United States, settlers from the U.S. ("Anglos") had begun to move westward into Mexican territory based on Spanish land grants. Some of these settlers were active filibusters, who sought the long-term annexation of the area to the U.S. Many brought their African-American slaves with them and purchased slaves after immigrating to Mexico. The Mexican government had an uneasy relationship with these early settlers, in part because of the settlers being largely Protestant in officially Catholic Mexico, and because of attitudes of racial superiority and manifest destiny that they brought with them into the country.

2006-08-05 09:27:19 · update #1

It should also be noted that Texas did not leave Mexico over slavery, which was abolished in Mexico in 1829. It left due to the Mexican Constitution of 1824 being abolished in 1835 and a centralized government replacing the former federal structure. The Mexican states of Coahuila, Nuevo Leon, and Tamaulipas would also withdraw themselves from Mexico and would form their own federal republic called the Republic of the Rio Grande with Laredo as the capital, which is in the present day State of Texas. The Mexican state of Yucatán also seceeded and formed the Republic of Yucatán. And Texas withdrew from Mexico forming the Republic of Texas. Several other states also went into open rebellion as well. Texas, however, was the only Mexican state to be successful in separating itself from Mexico.

2006-08-05 09:27:43 · update #2

21 answers

Nope. We fought a war. We forced the Mexican government out of Texas and established a new government that was able to control and retain the territory.

Had the Mexican Army prevailed, I doubt we would be having a similar discussion about returning Texas to the US.

2006-08-05 10:06:27 · answer #1 · answered by JAMES11A 4 · 3 0

First off if it was "stole" it wasn't by the USA , because the Anglos that occupied it were known as Texicans or Texians , depending on who you ask , they were citizens of Mexico , they was a rebellion just like in the American Revolutionary War , just for different reasons , which lead to Goliad , Gonzalez , many smaller skirmishes , The Battle of the Alamo and finally The Battle of San Jacinto where General Antonio Lopez de Santa Anna was defeated by General Sam Houston in a matter of 18 minutes

2006-08-05 10:16:42 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No - because we paid for it from Mexico. Now did the Spanish steal it from Native American's - that is a better question. The Spanish were terrible to the natives forcing them on to congregacions. But under any law the US claims the Texas and the Southwestern United States supercedes Mexico's.

2006-08-05 11:28:18 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

That is a well hyperlink that you simply published however you have to again up and browse the prior side of the historical past approximately how Spain granted land to Austin and allowed three hundred Anglo households to transport into Spanish land. This occurred nearly the time Mexico declared Independence from Spain. Years of turmoil adopted within the Mexican govt however General Santa Ana allowed the Anglos to preserve and receive extra land. Over time 1000s of Anglos settled within the Northern Mexico discipline we now name Texas and whilst The United States made more than one presents to shop for the Territory, Americans that had settled there have been attempting to set up it as an unbiased republic. Like we Americans continuously did within the years of enlargement we claimed the land the we occupied as our possess and displaced individuals who have been there first. Much extra used to be taken from the Native Americans than we ever took from Mexico however we took it simply the identical.

2016-08-28 12:13:42 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Finally, a Yahoo member who can communicate.

No, we won it fair and square. We spilled a lot of blood (massacres at the Alamo and Goliad), yet thanks to Sam Houston's outstanding plan, we got it. Can you imagine if Texas had stayed a part of that third world, over-populated, polluted, and corrupt Mexico?
What a waste that would have been!

2006-08-05 09:56:37 · answer #5 · answered by Nani 4 · 1 1

I don't think that the Americans stole Texas. They won the war, so it's only fair right?

2006-08-05 09:32:19 · answer #6 · answered by TROLLIN' 3 · 1 0

We won Texas fair and square and stupid people need to learn that is part of our country now and there's nothing you can do about it unless you have an army behind your computer.

2006-08-05 12:53:21 · answer #7 · answered by terf_art 2 · 1 0

Like Hawaii- Texas was taken by force,

2006-08-05 09:41:28 · answer #8 · answered by okayokayokay 5 · 2 0

No!
It was won in a war and with all the laws that went along with annexation.

2006-08-05 09:35:10 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I'm familiar with history of Texas.

2006-08-05 12:23:43 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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