In Acts 10:44-48 How did they determine they had received salvation (borned again)?

Answer 1

Then knew the Gentiles had been born again because they also received the Holy Spirit and began to speak in tongue and praise God just as Peter and the other disciples had on the day of Pentecost. When Peter is questioned about why he preached to the Gentiles, he told the church leaders it was because the Gentiles had received the Holy Spirit fell on them and they received the same gift (tongues) that the disciples had received on the day of Pentecost. (See Acts 11:15-17).

Answer 2

Actually, you have it backwards. Salvation is an outcome of being born again. Furthermore, being born again is the beginning of the process of sanctification. Catholics attach salvation to sanctification; most Protestants attach salvation to the initial event. We Lutherans have a bit more complex view in which the Sacraments and preaching of the Word reinforce each other throughout the believer's lifetime for salvation. OT believers were born again through baptism of desire, just as the thief on the cross was.

Answer 3

(Acts 2:4) and they all became filled with holy spirit and started to speak with different tongues, just as the spirit was granting them to make utterance.
(Genesis 10:20) 20 These were the sons of Ham according to their families, according to their tongues, in their lands, by their nations.

speaking each others laguage without knowing it.
Is the ‘speaking in tongues’ that is done today the same as that done by first-century Christians?

In the first century, the miraculous gifts of the spirit, including the ability to “speak in tongues,” verified that God’s favor had shifted from the Jewish system of worship to the newly established Christian congregation. (Heb. 2:2-4) Since that objective was accomplished in the first century, is it necessary to prove the same thing again and again in our day?

In the first century, the ability to “speak in tongues” gave impetus to the international work of witnessing that Jesus had commissioned his followers to do. (Acts 1:8; 2:1-11; Matt. 28:19) Is that how those who “speak in tongues” use that ability today?

In the first century, when Christians ‘spoke in tongues,’ what they said had meaning to people who knew those languages. (Acts 2:4, 8) Today, is it not true that ‘speaking in tongues’ usually involves an ecstatic outburst of unintelligible sounds?

In the first century, the Bible shows, congregations were to limit the ‘speaking in tongues’ to two or three persons who might do that at any given meeting; they were to do it “each in turn,” and if there was no interpreter present they were to keep silent. (1 Cor. 14:27, 28, RS) Is that what is being done today?

Answer 4

If you will go back to the previous verse (V-43) you will find your answer. It tells you that whosoever believeth in him (Jesus Christ)shall receive remission of sins, or salvation. So they evidently asked Jesus to come into their hearts and to forgive their sins. And they done so as an act of faith, which everyone must do in order to receive salvation.

Answer 5

what is written has been written, by faith.