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In a previous debate I was directed to Leviticus 18:22 to learn homosexuality is an abomination. The Old Testament contains prohibitions and laws on a whole range of matters - e.g. trimming beards, not touching pigs, working the Sabbath, how to sell slaves, etc. - and few, if any, Christians pay heed to these. I understand the reason to be that the New Testament is acknowledged as superceding the Old Testament, especially on issues of ancient Judaic society, including most of these matters mentioned. Jesus didn't remark on any of the above, as far as I know, instead preaching general tolerance and simplicity of faith. To my knowledge - though I'm no Biblical scholar - Jesus did not mention homosexuality at all. Nor beards, or unclean pigs. So why do so many Christians adhere to this Old Testament pronouncement but not, say, selling daughters into slavery if they misbehave? Enlighten me, oh pious ones... or at least acknowledge there's room for debate.

2006-08-03 08:00:10 · 34 answers · asked by Tyler's Mate 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

34 answers

Jesus himself is not recorded saying anything about homosexuality. But it's also important to look at what he did say. We have about 1,800 quotes from Jesus throughout the Bible. Of those, 180 of them are direct quotes from the Old Testament. that's 10%, a pretty good portion if you ask me. Jesus held the Old Testament in very high regard. Jesus himself claimed that he did not come to change the law, but to fulfill it through his sacrifice. Therefore it can be held that Jesus does agree with the Old Testament law. Also, after Christ coming, we have a number of places in the New Testament which also teach of homosexuality asa sin. Other things, such as the pigs issue, are a little different, because Christ actually clarified it for those who misunderstood the old testament (Mark 7). The law didn't change, he only helped those who could not understand it.

I don't recall Jesus teaching tolerance, he taught forgiveness. They are very different things. He taught that for those who do evil, it is God's place to repay, this is also in agreement with the Old Testament. We are to forgive those who wrong us. That doesn't mean we accept people doing wrong as something that is acceptable.

Remember, just because Jesus didn't quote all of the Old Testament, doesn't mean it's not true. All of the Bible is true, and as such it is to be respected as true. The laws of the Old Testament were given so that people would know the definition of their sins. Jesus agreed with it, and went further to explain that the issue is not the letter of the law, but the spirit of the law.

Jesus didn't say child molesting was wrong, but you would be hard pressed to find someone who would argue that it's ok because Jesus didn't say anything about it. The Bible isn't designed to be taken in part, but in whole.

2006-08-03 08:26:38 · answer #1 · answered by GodsKnite 3 · 0 1

Well, it depends on if you believe Jesus Christ was Jehovah in the Old Testament. It is still a sin, but it does not mean the people are bad people. It is a weakness aggravated by Satan's followers, who would like to slow down the spiritual progress of the world because the Second Coming of Jesus Christ is getting closer. I believe that the divine purpose of the family unit has been re-affirmed again and again by living prophets who speak for Jesus Christ. The spirit of confusion would have some people believe otherwise, but at some point in time it will become apparent that there is only one pattern for true family happiness. Again, I would say that it does not make them bad people, but the practice of this gender confusion is severely limiting their spiritual progress.

2006-08-03 08:15:05 · answer #2 · answered by Cookie777 6 · 0 0

You are absolutely right... it is hypocritical for the Christian who say this to adhere to one or some of those Old Testament Laws and not to others... those laws in Leviticus are ceremonial laws meant for the people of that time period before Christ died on the cross...

But the New Testament does talk about homosexuality...

I Corinthians 6:9-10

"9. Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, 10. nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. "

So sorry Jesus does mention homosexuality in the NT

2006-08-03 08:14:21 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The Bible is God's word:

The Holy Scriptures, Old and New Testaments, are the written Word of God, given by divine inspiration through holy men of God who spoke and wrote as they were moved by the Holy Spirit. In this Word, God has committed to man the knowledge necessary for salvation. The Holy Scriptures are the infallible revelation of His will. They are the standard of character, the test of experience, the authoritative revealer of doctrines, and the trustworthy record of God's acts in history. (2 Peter 1:20, 21; 2 Tim. 3:16, 17; Ps. 119:105; Prov. 30:5, 6; Isa. 8:20; John 17:17; 1 Thess. 2:13; Heb. 4:12.)

More on homosexuality link below:

2006-08-03 08:13:45 · answer #4 · answered by Damian 5 · 0 0

Our objection is based on the fact the New Testament also condems homosexuality in Romans 1 and 1 Corinthians 6.

Both letters were written by Paul prior to the writing of the gospels, which contain the words of Jesus. His letters were known to the gospel writers (Peter, who helped write the gospel of Mark spoke of the letters as being scripture. Luke, who wrote the gospel of Luke, was a traveling companion of Paul's).

If the gospel writers had disagreed with Paul, they had only to include one saying from Jesus supporting homosexuals (or in John's case one side-comment from John because he includes a lot in his gospel) and the whole issue would have been settled forever. They did not, obviously because Paul had already correctly settled the issue.

So has nothing to do with Old Testament laws, but with New Testament principles.

2006-08-03 08:11:16 · answer #5 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 0

Remember, the Jesus of the New Testament is the God of the Old Testament, therefore, any pronouncement from God in the Old Testament was a pronouncement from Christ. Also, I am sure you are aware of the this New Testament passage from Romans:

Rom 1:24 Because of this, God gave them up to impurity in the lusts of their hearts, their bodies to be dishonored among themselves,
Rom 1:25 who changed the truth of God into the lie, and worshiped and served the created thing more than the Creator, who is blessed forever. Amen.
Rom 1:26 Because of this, God gave them up to dishonorable passions, for even their females changed the natural use to that contrary to nature.
Rom 1:27 And likewise, the males also forsaking the natural use of the female burned in their lust toward one another, males with males working out shamefulness, and receiving back within themselves the reward which was fitting for their error.
Rom 1:28 And even as they did not think fit to have God in their knowledge, God gave them up to a reprobate mind, to do the things not right,

Look, the Bible speaks against homosexuality, both Old and New Testament. If you don't want to accept that, that is your choice. But there are consequences for every act and choice.

2006-08-03 08:10:21 · answer #6 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 0 0

Some laws had to do with the culture. It's true Jesus didn't touch on everything, but He also didn't talk about murder. That doesn't make it ok. Homosexuality is a sin bc God says so in the verse you mentioned. It goes against His design for sex and marriage. However, Paul did talk about sexual immorality and that would include homosexual behavior. Since Paul was inspired by God, we take his words to be from God.

Some laws were given bc of health issues, such as the ones regarding clean and unclean animals and various emissions and whatnot. Others, like the one on homosexuality, were given on moral grounds and God's purpose for sex in marriage. Those laws stand through to the present. They still apply.

2006-08-03 08:11:19 · answer #7 · answered by STEPHEN J 4 · 0 0

As an anti-theist, i'm loathe to declare this, yet I worry you will have taken this quote out of context. that's my information that the regulations he's concerning to are, in certainty, the commandments and the 613 regulations as stated in the e book of Numbers. As for the timing, I worry the statute of catch 22 situation on those regulations carry on with as much as the time whilst Jesus returns to Earth at Armageddon. that's exciting to word although, this fact could seem to break the Christian guideline that those regulations, some distance from being fulfilled prophesy, are nonetheless very lots in tension immediately. and could stay enforced till Christ's 2d coming.

2016-10-01 10:43:16 · answer #8 · answered by dicken 4 · 0 0

Thanks for a thought provoking question. I have often wondered the same thing you do but never took the time to explore the issue. This is some of what I found. I'm not a bible thumper so I'll just give you the citation and the interpretation I discovered.

1. Romans 1:26-27- This passage is unique in that it is the only place in the bible that refers to same-gender sexual behavior by women.
2. 1Corithians 6:9-10 - The use of the word "effeminate" is thought to refer to male behavior that is unmanly or lacking virility. This verse alone has been translated into the many 25+ English versions of the bible and may even list the words homosexuals, catamites, pederasts, perverts or sodomites.
Here is a site that discusses this passage and its many interpretations in depth...http://www.religioustolerance.org/chr_sav1.htm
3. 1Timothy 1:9-10 In the original Greek version of the bible, Paul coined a word "arsenokoitai" which translated means male-bedder. Timothy uses this term in this passage. It refers to lawless, ungodly, profane, murderers, whoremongers and menstealers. In this passage male prostitutes or men who indulge in unlawful sexual intercourse with a man or a woman would be denied entrance into Heaven.
4. Matthew 8:5-13
5. Matthew 5:22- It is often stated that Jesus never commented on homosexuality. A case can be made that he refers to gays in this verse. On the surface, it seems to condemn those who treat others with contempt or call them names. Hatred of others is considered as serious as the overt act of murder. "Raca" is an Aramaic term of comtempt but raca can also mean weakness as it refers to homosexuals. "Moros" can be translated as fool and included sexual aggressors. In fact some think that Jesus is actually condemning homophobia in this passage.
6. Matthew 19:4-5

I hope this helps in your quest for the answer. You are the only one that answer for yourself. Peace.

2006-08-03 08:21:44 · answer #9 · answered by Chainsawmom 5 · 0 0

All scripture is inspired by God, so to quote any passage is to quote the very words of Jesus who is true God.

2 Timothy 3:16All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,

This a New Testament passage which also covers homosexuality.

1 Corinthians 6:9Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders 10nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.

It is important to remember that homosexuality is a sin that Jesus forgives. But we must also remember what we are to do after we have been forgiven. We are to change our ways and sin no more.

When Jesus declared forgiveness to the prostitute, he also had this to say..

John 8: 11..."Then neither do I condemn you," Jesus declared. "Go now and leave your life of sin."

2006-08-03 08:13:58 · answer #10 · answered by d8 2 · 0 0

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