because that would depend on the native language of the speaker.. Some English learners try to learn English by comparing English to their language. In that case, to make an English sentence, they follow the patterns of constructing sentences in their own language. Their pronunciations vary too because they get influenced with the language they originally have. In the case of many Asians, they tend to extend or add syllables to a words that end in consonants because that is how they speak in their own language too.
Nowadays, many people believe that English is the prime language so you don't need to worry because everyone wants to learn how the Americans speak. They are actually trying to go with what people regard as the standard one. It won't be very easy.
2006-08-04 08:50:06
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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If u want to understand languages and thing behin it, then u r invited to india. The thing with most of european languages is that they all are adopted languages, by that i mean, that we in india speak Hindi, which is highly sound based, for that we have to open our mouth more that what an amarican or for that matter an english will do. The basic phonetics will be same for hindi and english so the pronunciation differs. Second important thing is the silen letters, u will many adopters missing the silence. English is highly dynamic language and it adopts thing quite easily as it is spoken by various ppl. English which we write is not phonoticaly based, like sanskrit or hindi, which have some basic sounds, and are used similarly in written form. example, kasket, casket will be prononced similarly( words are only examples), so why do we have c and k, we can find many such examples, i am missing the term used for such words. we can have future discussions on this, if u r intrested.
2006-08-03 11:31:10
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answer #2
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answered by KT 2
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Spanish have the same problem, it's because, at first everybody speak the same, I mean during the America Discovery and so on, but trough centuries, the languages evolution in most cases because of influences from other countries, but not all the regions can be so influenced and less if they're so distanced...
So for example, now Latin American have a lot of words from North America, that influence doesn't come to Spain, and we in Spain may have an influence from French or Italian which in South America doesn't exist...
2006-08-03 11:01:18
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answer #3
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answered by esther c 4
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The language you learn when a child growing up has a big influence on how you hear other languages, and how your mouth is able to form sounds. Just as someone growing up in the US and only exposed to English may never be able to speak Mandarin Chinese without an accent, so many people in other countries will also have an accent from their native toungue when speaking English.
2006-08-03 10:19:34
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answer #4
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answered by Rjmail 5
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Uniform pronounciation! Possible ! If people from the region who speak as you like come and teach the the whole world.
But you should understand the importance of rich languages in the world which are also to be given chance for learning throughout the world
2006-08-03 13:51:48
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answer #5
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answered by adapoda 3
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It's just dialect. Even in the US our English sounds different in various regions or even neighborhoods -even if born & raised in the US. I appreciate the different dialects as it defines who we are.
I remember something in the Bible about God scattering all the languages so we could not understand eachother. It was some sort of punishment back in the Old Testament, but I don't recall the details or how it relates to current language differences. May be something there though.
2006-08-03 10:23:38
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answer #6
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answered by mommaof4 2
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The vocabulary of the specific dialect of English is influenced by the neighboring, local languages. EG: "Bakkie" is South African English for what is called a "small pickup truck" in the US. "Bakkie" is from the Afrikaans word for that type of vehicle.
The accent of the specific dialect of English is influenced by how words in the neighboring, local language are pronounced. The absence of a trilled "R" in Japanese means that people who learned Japanese as a first language have more difficulty learning to pronounce words that contain that sound, than people whose first language includes that sound.
The classic example of difficulty in learning to pronounce words, are the Khoisan languages, and Xhosa, which contain a number of click sounds. Native speakers of those languages will occasionally throw a click sound into an English word, simply because that is, for them, the easiest/only way to correctly pronounce the English sound.
s far as one universal dialect of English goes --- it won't happen until English is a dead language. As a language, it is too easily influenced by other languages, to stifled, like the Academy does for French.
2006-08-03 11:43:55
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answer #7
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answered by jblake80856 3
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I would say not only english language got this problem. Every language. For example Chinese, even they may write the same but sound different. Last time my teacher use to told me that French may sound difference for the north and the south. That happen to German too, east and west.
2006-08-03 11:10:15
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answer #8
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answered by chawcs 3
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Spanish and Portuguese are like that too. I don't think any language is that incredibly uniform. I expect you're right, a combination of mother tongue, local slang, even the differences in the social and geographical environment can alter speech dramatically.
2006-08-03 11:01:03
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answer #9
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answered by daisyk 6
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Because English is one of the hardest languages to learn and it is very hard to switch from the language that you are use to speaking to English. When I was little I spoke both English and french and a little bit of Spanish and it is hard going back and forth from each other. They are so different from each other that when you learn more than one at a time it makes it hard not to mix them up!
2006-08-03 10:22:49
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answer #10
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answered by princeessintraning 4
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