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how can it be the god's word when u have all these books written with many many diffrent people and all these versions u have?how do u know it's still the word of god?
keep checking i will respond again after i hear some comments

2006-08-03 00:15:17 · 15 answers · asked by prince_o0of_darkness 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

so u sure agree it's not god's word anymore? when u keep having anew version every few years that means who write these?? sure he don't get them from god!!

2006-08-03 00:23:39 · update #1

ok someone just said the meanings r the same so i'm sure most of u agree with him? let's discuss this and get all the versions u can get so u can understand my point

2006-08-03 00:24:59 · update #2

II SAMUEL 24

The Numbering

AND again the anger of the LORD was kindled against Israel, and he moved David against them to say, Go, number Israel and Judah.

While the author of Samuel 24 above, makes God the boss of the situation, the author of Chronicles below gives credit to the Devil.
I CHRONICLES 21

The Numbering

AND SATAN stood up against Israel, and provoked David to number Israel.

2006-08-03 00:25:26 · update #3

II SAMUEL 24:13

13.So Gad came to David, and told him, and said unto him, Shall seven years of famine come unto thee in thy land? Or wilt thou flee three months before thine enemies, while they pursue, thee?

I CHRONICLES 21:11

11. So Gad came to David, and said unto him, Thus saith the LORD, Choose thee
12. Either three years' famine; or three months to be destroyed before thy foes, while that the sword of thine enemies overtaketh thee;

2006-08-03 00:25:53 · update #4

II CHRONICLES 36

9. Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign, and he reigned three months and ten days in Jerusalem: and he did that which was evil in the sight of the LORD.

II KINGS 24

8. Jehoiachin was eighteen years old when he began to reign, and he reigned in Jerusalem three months. And his mothers name was Nehushta, the daughter of Elnathan of Jerusalem.

2006-08-03 00:26:14 · update #5

II SAMUEL 10

18. And the Syrians fled before Israel; and David slew the men of seven hundred chariots of the Syrians, and forty thousand horsemen, and smote Shobach the captain of their host, who died there.

I CHRONICLES 19

18. But the Syrians fled before Israel: and David slew of the Syrians seven thousand men which fought in chariots, and forty thousand footmen, and killed Shophach the captain of the host.

2006-08-03 00:26:31 · update #6

want more? i have much more in my sources u can go check my last question and see my source there

2006-08-03 00:27:37 · update #7

so now as u saw in these versions they doesn't have the same meanings,700 much diffrent than 7000 also 8 years and 18 years aren't the same meaning also 7 years and 3 years and so on.......

2006-08-03 00:29:22 · update #8

and AGAIN for you CRIS C go check my last source that i bet u didn't even care to look at that if u did u wouldn't be here answering this now bcuz u would be sure that Bible isn't God word!!! and i just gave u many many many mistakes in ur Bible so no need to give me something means the same just try to comment on these mistakes would be better

2006-08-03 00:31:28 · update #9

ok now so this is for you williamzo<<<

2006-08-03 00:35:41 · update #10

so many of you all now r about to believe that Bible isn't anymore word of god....and for those cheaters who put things have no communication to the HOLY QURAN maybe some them does but the rest are FAKE and i guess u better all of u get the Holy Quran in ur hands and start comparing and tell me what u think<<<<

2006-08-03 00:45:08 · update #11

some more mistakes in the Bible that is supposed to be the word of GOD

I KINGS 7

26. And it was an hand breadth thick, and the brim thereof was wrought like the brim of a cup, with flowers of lilies: it contained two thousand baths..

II CHRONICLES 4

5. And the thickness of it was an handbreadth, and the brim of it like the work of the brim of a cup, with flowers of lilies; and it received and held three thousand baths.
II CHRONICLES

CHAPTER 9

25. And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen; whom he bestowed in the chariot cities, and with the king at Jerusalem.

I KINGS

CHAPTER 4

26 And Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen.

2006-08-03 00:50:21 · update #12

15 answers

Well i agree with u to some extent ............. Let me break it down for u.
First, it was the word of God, the name of the book was "Injeel".
Then, the sayings of Prophet Jesus (Peace be Upon Him) were added to it.
Then, the commentary of the Apostles were added to it.
Then, there were fabrication by the Church ........... i.e. new things added as they wished, and some things removed as they pleased.

Do you even know where this word 'Bible' comes from? It is a Greek word "Bibliography", whose literal meaning is "book writing'. So, u can see how they gave it this name as 'they compiled a book of all the religious teachings the church had', so it definitely does not remain a word of God ......... And one other thing, the original language of "Injeel" was hebrew, so how can it has a greek name "bible". And, the interesting fact is even, the hebrew version is not the original hebrew version, it is the translation greek to hebrew. So, as we all know how words seem to lose their original meaning and essence with translations. And translation of translation does not make it the original, it deviates it more from the true meaning.

2006-08-03 00:45:26 · answer #1 · answered by Valentino 3 · 6 3

To stay focused on your original question about different interpretations and versions of the Bible I am posting this answer I gave a couple of days ago for a similar question:

The original texts were written in Hebrew for the Old Testament and the New Testament was in Greek.

These original texts were translated into Latin, known as the Latin Vulgate (vulgate...vulgar...originally simply meant Common language) by St Jerome about the third century.

The original English translation was the Catholic Holy Bible, commonly and more correctly called the Douay-Rheims Bible, named after the two towns (Douay in England and Rheims in France) where the translation to English was done in the late 1500's....older than the 1611 King James.

So, as far as English translations go...the DR is the original and goes back to the original Hebrew and Greek the shortest route. It would stand to reason since it only goes: Hebrew/Greek; Latin; Douay-Rhiems; that the DR is actually the most accurate translation as well.

P.S. Dear KATHY: Sorry to burst your bubble but the Authorized KJV has not been around since Eternity....only 1611
The Catholic books have been around since the 3rd Century.
Quite a difference.

PPS: And JANA: Your history is a tad bit skewed on the Church not allowing common people to own a Bible. The original idea behind keeping the texts in the original Hebrew/Greek/Latin was to maintain the integrity of these texts and their true original meanings. It was feared that any vulgar (common) vernacular translations would change meaning.

Also... you have to remember that the majority of the "common" people did not own a personal Bible simply because, 1. They did not know how to read. Few people received a proper education in those days and 2. There were no printing presses to mass produce a Bible. Bibles were hand printed by scribes and a single Bible could take a year to produce; thus most Bibles were inside the Church (building) to be used by the clergy. And if a "Layperson" could read and wanted a Bible in the home it was normally so expensive to produce they couldn't afford it (hand written over several months to a year could create quite a price tag)

We do get quite a different picture when we get ALL the facts and familiarize ourselves with the complete history of the times. The Church has NEVER prohibited individuals from owning or reading the Bible.

2006-08-03 00:28:26 · answer #2 · answered by Augustine 6 · 0 0

As for the history of the Bible, there are probably 1000 different copies of manuscripts of New Testament books. Most agree, except in maybe some minor differences in tenses. The word of God was given perfectly to the original writers. Man could have made some mistakes after this.
There are many translations (I am speaking of English Bibles). King James, and American Standard (around 1880's), that are pretty literal. There are more modern translations and paraphrases. I probably have 10 of these. The important thing is when comparing them, I see they make the same point, using easier to understand language. I would recommend one to a beginner. But I go back to the King James for study and also a Greek and Hebrew Bible (interlinear).
We know God authored the Bible. And we know it is accurate also from a historical standpoint.

2006-08-03 00:28:42 · answer #3 · answered by RB 7 · 0 0

Yes the different versions of the bible seem to be somewhat different and there are even what appears to be contradictions in the same version. This is because the bible was not written for natural mans understanding, but MUST be discerned spiritually. The bible must be read in a spiritual state of mind to understand it at all. You can read and understand a little of it in the natural, because even man's natural mind has a measure of faith, otherwise you would never desire the things of God. I suggest praying for the anointing of God when studying His Word. If you are doing a group bible study, I would suggest using the same version to cut down on confusion between the printings. I would still pray for spiritual understanding before attempting to read, either in a group or alone. Then study what God leads you to study. He normally uses His word to confirm in your Spirit, something that the Holy Spirit has been teaching you in your heart.

2006-08-03 00:31:12 · answer #4 · answered by happylife22842 4 · 0 0

Copiests from early times meticously by hand copied over and over scrolls that were penned earlier by the inspired Bible writers. (Luke, Moses, Paul, John etc.) Except for a few variations of spelling the Bible has come down to us pretty much intact. I say pretty much because sadly, due to a Jewish superstitiion of not wanting to use or pronounce God's personal name, Jehovah, they have taken out his name and substituted Lord, God, Almighty in the places were Jehovah's personal name should be. That is about 7000 times worth of eliminating the true authors name! There are some spurious verses that have been altered but they are identifiable due to older copies varifiying the changes made. An example is the trinitarian belief. As in John 1:1, they have taken out the word "a" and made it seem that Jesus is God, but he's not. He's God's only begotten son. The accuracy of the Bible writers, when it comes to Bible prophecy,had to be inspired for them to write it so refined and accurate. No human could have written about future events so 100% accurate. Even people who claim to know the future never predicted 9/11/01. The Bible is always honest, open and accurate. That's why we know humans were used to pen the words as a secretary pens the words of her or his boss, but the words are composed by the boss. Therefore the words are from Jehovah, but the men who first wrote them were inspired by God's holy spirit to write them so accurately. So the difference in the Bibles are spelling, spurious books added by historians in the case of the Douey Bible printed for Catholics and that God's personal name has been taken out unless you use the New World Translation. Also be wary of paraphrased Bibles. They have a tendency to skip over many valuable points that take away from the theme of the Bible.

2006-08-03 00:37:49 · answer #5 · answered by Gail B 3 · 0 0

you wanna know whAts up with the bible, here yA go, there is only one true english trAnslation.. the kjv, i know i know, you hAte it, i'm not crAzy About it but then Again, its better than reAding a bible thAt hAs deleted scriptures [niv nlt living bible nrsv etc etc] and it is better thAn not hAving god's word.. if you wAnt proof of this, check out this book you can reAd online, i checked out this guy and he is an excellent authority when it comes to bible translating.. Also i researched some of whats he said And it mAtches, it hAs continuity. and i have reAd some other books on the same subjects And they all speAk with harmony, even from rivAl authors.. but this book is the only one i could find for free online reAding..
http://samgipp.com/answer/gipp_answer_index.html

2006-08-03 01:21:37 · answer #6 · answered by stinger_449 2 · 0 0

yea its true that many different groups of Christians have different Bibles to follow.......like the King James Version, Holy Bible, Gedion Bible.....so on and so forth. But the real thing about the Bible is not what you read but how you intepret it........the vers maybe written idfferently but its meaning it usually the same. Moreover one must just have faith and not question God's word

2006-08-03 00:23:31 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I agree,

Its like a rumor, throughout the centries and many copies/translations, who knows how many times, and what could have been changed.

If you ask me the stories are a little ...... ehhh when you think logically about it I just cant bring myself to believe them. That and its a book, writin and translated many times. And I cant understand or read it! Omg.

Im a see it to believe person.
I totally respect religions of all kinds, but I just cant bring myself to believe in the Bible.

Blessed Be !

2006-08-03 00:31:22 · answer #8 · answered by Branwen 4 · 0 0

i completely agree.
having some jobs as translator, i know that sentences and paragraphs have different meaning with each word chosen. in translating, you either keep the text and sacrifice the meaning, or keep the meaning but transform the text.
why can't christians have the original words of the bible in hebrew on one side, and the translation on the other?
it's very easy, and it would bring better understanding to the original meaning of the bible

2006-08-03 00:25:14 · answer #9 · answered by milisnyaica 3 · 0 0

I agree. Definetely God had sent his Word to people throgh Jesus. But is Bible reflects this Word as it was sent?? I have doubts. Thats why I read Quran

2006-08-03 00:31:31 · answer #10 · answered by Suomi 4 · 0 0

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