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In Leviticus,(Old Testament)it was wrong to eat shellfish,etc...but when the New Testament(Law) was formed,it was considered ok.Does that mean then that in the Old Testament homosexuality was wrong but then made acceptable when the New Testament was written? I mean those words are either all wrong or all right.

2006-08-02 15:47:00 · 22 answers · asked by ? 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

22 answers

This is a good question. The Bible consists of two "Covenants" ("Covenant" is a better translation than "Testament").

Under the First Covenant which was a covenantal arrangement between God and ancient Israel, the dietary laws of Leviticus were one aspect of this covenant. The eating of some types of meat were forbidden; there were no restrictions on plants. There are a number of approaches that have been developed to try to explainthe rationale behind which foods were considered unclean. See http://learn.jtsa.edu/topics/diduknow/jrpguide/21_part1.shtml




The words “homosexual” and “homosexuality” do not appear in the Bible—at least they are absent from the original Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek texts. The authors of the Bible did not understand sexual orientation; this concept was only developed in the late 19th century. The writers had little or no comprehension of same-sex committed relationships. Their languages had no words for these concepts. Rather, they assumed that everyone was heterosexual, but that some heterosexuals engaged in sex with persons of the same gender. Thus, when you see one of these terms in an English translation of the Bible, it is important to dig deeper and find what the original Hebrew or Greek text really means.

When one compares the original Hebrew and Greek writings with various English translations of the Bible, discrepancies emerge. There are many passages in English Bibles which clearly condemn same-sex activities. But when the original Hebrew or Greek text is studied, the passages are either ambiguous or are unrelated to consentual homosexuality within a committed relationship. Two words which are often mistranslated in many places in the Hebrew Scriptures are:

* qadesh means a male temple prostitute who engaged in ritual sex; it is often mistranslated as “sodomite” or “homosexual.”
* to’ebah means a condemned foreign Pagan religious cult practice, but often translated as “abomination.”


In the New Testament, we have both a continuation of some of the old covenant ideas and some significant changes. No longer is any person or creature considered to be "unclean" --this means all food is Ok to eat as well as the Gentile people are acceptable to God as Christian converts.

The New Testament also does not contain any clear prohibitions against homosexualtiy, although some have interpreted several verses that way, as stated above.

2006-08-02 16:11:43 · answer #1 · answered by Ponderingwisdom 4 · 0 1

Neither. In the New Testament, Jesus (PBUH) specifically said that He did not come to change the law but to confirm it. In other words, he was confirming what the Old Testament said. It was the Romans who misconstrued everything and made up what is known today as the Bible. Oh, if you're a woman, you are particularly foolish to choose christianity. You're very birth is a "total loss" and your brothers in law all have a right to sexual relationships with you if your husband should die. No lie, it's right there.

2006-08-02 22:59:27 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The Kosher Laws of the Old Testament are still followed by most religious Jews. They were not enforced on Gentile believers. However the New Testament did require even Gentile believers to abstain from immorality and was very clear in forbidding same sex sexual activity.

2006-08-02 22:53:01 · answer #3 · answered by 4thwatch 3 · 0 0

The Old Law is the Mosaiac Law which is found in the Old Testement. Christiands are not under the Mosaiac Law since Jesus Christ set up a new covenant. Yes, homosexuality is talked about in the Old Testement, but it is not made acceptable now that there is a new law. Jesus talked about marriage and introduced the idea that when a woman and a man get married, they become one flesh. It is clear that the new law promoted a man and female relationship, rather than same sex relationships.

2006-08-02 22:53:12 · answer #4 · answered by AnGeL 4 · 0 0

There is a difference in the ceremonial law and the moral code.
The moral code is still in force. All of the Ten Commandments were reiterated in the New Testament as were the prohibitions against drunkenness, homosexual behavior, gossiping, etc.

2006-08-02 22:52:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No sweety. Actually, the new testament does speaks on homosexuality as being a sin, but please remember, we all sin regardless of homosexuality. We're no better than homosexuals or heterasexuals. Sin is sin. But besides that, you can't have the old testament without the new testament or vise versa. They both relate back and forth between each other. They prove each other right.

2006-08-02 23:05:49 · answer #6 · answered by kayrrie101 2 · 0 0

What you get wrong is that the Law itself was not made wrong, but when Jesus came, some laws were no longer nessisary. These laws such as sacrificial, dietary and Sabbath laws were finished when Jesus came and the Word makes it clear, behavioral Laws are still law, and the Bible makes that clear as well. The Bible SAYS under the New Covenant, there are no longer unclean foods but never says homosexuality is now ok, instead it still speaks against it. If you get the OK from God to do something then it is ok.... if He does not SAY it's ok then don't assume it is.

2006-08-02 22:53:37 · answer #7 · answered by impossble_dream 6 · 0 0

You need to read what the New Testament says about homosexually. It is not only a sin against God but a sins against nature. Romans 1: 26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: Romans 1: 27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet. Romans 1: 28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;

2006-08-02 22:55:21 · answer #8 · answered by Ray W 6 · 0 0

There are two kinds of Law in the Old Testament, God's Law, the ten commandments and the ceremonial laws made by man. The ceremonial laws about rituals, about foods, about many issues were not written in stone by God Himself as the Ten Commandments were.The Ten Commandments are still in effect.

2006-08-02 22:55:38 · answer #9 · answered by cathyhewed1946 4 · 0 0

The New Testament repeats that homosexuality is a sin.

2006-08-02 22:50:27 · answer #10 · answered by nancy jo 5 · 0 0

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