1) The woman is suspected of sleeping around.
2) She is given a liquid to drink.
3) The liquid will cause her, if she is guilty, to have a miscarrying barren womb.
That sounds like an abortion to me.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=4&chapter=5&verse=27&version=31&context=verse
Numbers 5:27 (New International Version)
If she has defiled herself and been unfaithful to her husband, then when she is made to drink the water that brings a curse, it will go into her and cause bitter suffering; her abdomen will swell and her thigh waste away, [she will have barrenness and a miscarrying womb] and she will become accursed among her people.
2006-08-02
07:21:56
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23 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Neptune: Well, think about it. If she is guilty, then she was "sleeping around". So whose baby is the miscarriage going to kill? Maybe the husband's and maybe the other man's. The barreness part is consist, as reduced fertility is sometimes a side effect of abortions.
2006-08-02
07:33:12 ·
update #1
Juanita Moreno: What am I twisting? She's drink a liquid that causes miscarriages. By definition that's an abortion attempt.
2006-08-02
07:34:36 ·
update #2
tabs: It doesn't say she's not pregnant. If she's guilty, then she has been sleeping around. Are you suggesting she used a condom or birth control pills? What do you think a miscarriage is?
2006-08-02
07:36:37 ·
update #3
Yeah, that's what it seems like.
2006-08-02 07:25:48
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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No, because the woman is not pregnant!
I don't know what gives you the idea that this passage is talking about pregnant women who have been unfaithful......
Anyway, it still seems very cruel but keep in mind that the woman will only be affected by the "cursed" water if she has indeed been unfaithful.
I have a friend who is married to a very jealous man. He is completely irrational about it. Sometimes I wish there was a way to prove her innocence to him.......
This law was obviously not only given so adulteresses could be punished but also to protect a wife from the accusations of an unreasonably jealous husband! At least, that's how I see it!
2006-08-02 14:33:24
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answer #2
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answered by tabs 4
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First of all, you must consider the whole chapter, not just verse 27. The woman has not for certain been charged with adultery; only suspected. The water which she was to drink, was holy water. It was only to find out the truth, as to whether or not she was guilty. If not, nothing would happen to her. If she was guilty, the water would bring forth the truth. It says nothing about a baby already being carried by the woman. If she was guilty, it would simply cause her to go into bitter suffering, as mentioner earlier by a friend's answer. It would probably cause her to not be able to have children in the future. It is just like us having a lie detector test; except much more percise in bringing about the truth. I would advise every person to be very careful about the answers which you give to some of these questions. It is very evident that you know absolutely nothing about God, nor about his Holy Word; and it sounds as though you could not care less. The Bible aslo tells us that we will give account unto God for every word and every deed which comes forth from us. And simply because you have your foolish reasons for not believing in God, it does not make Him one bit less real and alive, and knowing your every word and thought.
2006-08-02 14:46:55
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answer #3
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answered by Calvin S 4
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Commanding abortion?
No.
It never really states whether she was pregnant at the time anyway. I think it says that she will have miscarriages in the future and never be able to give birth.
It is definately not commanding abortion.
Edit
It says in that very verse, she will have a "miscarrying" womb. Not an aborting one.
Think about it. It says the liquid will cause her abdomen to swell. If she is already pregnant, her abdomen will already be swollen.
My point, a person can cheat and not get pregnant. This liquid curses her for future conceptions.
2006-08-02 14:27:06
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answer #4
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answered by Nep-Tunes 6
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I think it is more about barrenness, as the 'thigh wasting' is not part of a normal pregnancy. Also it seems to be a permanent condition which should not happen with an abortion ordinarily. I would think this could be more a psychosomatic inducer, so the woman if she is guilty would bring it upon herself, but the innocent woman would not be affected by the same 'cursed water' with 'dust from the tabernacle'.
2006-08-02 14:35:07
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answer #5
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answered by martian 3
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Wow -- the lengths to which some people will TWIST the Bible's words to try to justify the murder of unborn babies!
No offense, but this is the worst case of such twisting I've ever seen.
News flash, sir or madam -- nothing in the entire Chapter 5 of the Book of Numbers says a single, solitary thing about pregnant women or unborn babies. Not a word.
It only speaks of women being able (or not being able) to bear children.
Infertility and abortion, as every sensible person would agree, are not the same thing.
2006-08-02 14:32:39
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answer #6
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answered by Julia Encarnacion 1
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Wow -- the lengths to which some people will TWIST the Bible's words to try to justify the murder of unborn babies!
No offense, but this is the worst case of such twisting I've ever seen.
News flash, sir or madam -- nothing in the entire Chapter 5 of the Book of Numbers says a single, solitary thing about pregnant women or unborn babies. Not a word.
It only speaks of women being able (or not being able) to bear children.
Infertility and abortion, as every sensible person would agree, are not the same thing.
2006-08-02 14:30:19
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Reading the entire text.....it is an abortion whether we like it or not.....what i find even more interesting is that she is given a liquid to drink that will make her loose the baby and never have anymore if she is found guilty.....but what happens if she is not....will her womb be able to accomodate a child?
2006-08-02 14:30:20
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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It looks like the quote says that the decision for an abortion is not hers, but the people's or the judges. This is different from our concept of abortion, where the woman is the one making the decision.
2006-08-02 14:26:27
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answer #9
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answered by Rjmail 5
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One, you are usiing the corrupt NIV. But no matter, abortion is not what is implied here... it more closely describes a cancer or growth that would prevent conception and leave her barren...It also goes on to say that if she is innocent she will concieve.
the implication of miscarrying is incorrect as well. I see no way to imply that.
2006-08-02 14:32:51
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answer #10
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answered by IdahoMike 5
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Seems to me this is a punishment in biblical times but if a married woman now cheats and gets pregnant - see ya!!! Men now shouldn't stay with a woman who cheats and gets pregnant by another man. I think it is a punishment and not abortion.
2006-08-02 14:30:27
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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