Do christians really believe in the immaculate conception ?

Question

when in Romans 1 it says Paul a slave of Jesus Christ and called to be an apostle separated to Gods good news which he promised aforetime through his prophets in the holy scriptures concerning his Son who sprang from the SEED of David according to the FLESH but who with power was declared Gods son according to the spirit of holiness by means of resurrection from the dead.
Then in Matt 1 it says
The Record of Jesus Ancestors
1This is a record of the ancestors of Jesus the Messiah, a descendant of King David and of Abraham: Abraham was the father of Isaac :Isaac was the father of Jacob. Jacob was the father of Judah and his brothers. Judah was the father of Perez and Zerah all the way down to Jacob was the father of Joseph the husband of Mary the mother of Jesus who is called Messiah. Joseph WAS NOT RELATED TO JESUS SO HOW COULD HE BE HIS SEED. PLEASE NO BLIND FAITH ANSWERS

Answer 1

No, not if they are intelligent and read what is really being said, rather than what they think is being said.

Answer 2

alrighty, Paul is talking about Jesus' two heritages. No, he isn't related to Joseph in that way, but he was a descendant (which is the word my translation NASB uses instead of seed) of David in the sense that this was the line of David because Mary married Joseph and Joseph is descended of David. So it's not saying literally that David's seed made it to Jesus, just that Jesus was, as prophesied, in the line of David.
As for the other part of Jesus' heritage, yes. He was conceived by the Holy Spirit and born of the virgin Mary. That is what the scriptures say, so the answer would be that I do believe in the immaculate conception.

Answer 3

According to my understanding Catholics believe that Mary is the Immaculate Conception in other words she was born without sin in order that Jesus would not inherit original sin.
Mary according to scripture was a virgin..no where does it say that she was born without the stain of original sin. Jesus is the son of David through both Joseph aND Mary. They were 2nd cousins: however because of Jewish doctrine linage is determined by the male and it does not require direct blood relationship. In other words Joseph does not have to be Jesus's biological father in order for him to inherit the linage of Joseph. This is basis on doctrine of the Jews and can be found in other books besides the scriptures.

Here is another doctrinal thought..if you count 3 days from the Crucifixion to the Resurrection Friday evening to Sunday morning is not three days or (72 hours); however, a day according to Jewish law is any part of a day counts as a full day so Friday evening to midnight is day one
All of Saturday is day two and midnight Sunday to the Resurrection is day three (just for your information)

Answer 4

There's another record of his ancestry elsewhere in the NT that claims he's descended from David on Mary's side.

It's a bit confusing that one.

It could just be that there were a bunch of prophecies already made and Christians had to 'bend the truth' to show they were speaking about Jesus. Like a Nazarene family trekking to Bethlehem to give birth to Jesus? A Roman census? When census laws at the time strictly demanded people to _stay put_ in the city where they lived? And when Jesus was always during his life called Jesus of Nazareth? Why Bethlehem? Ah... I see... it was predicted in the OT...

Funny, eh?

Answer 5

Many Protestant religions do not believe in unique Sin -- so the stainless concept isn't an challenge for them. many of the teachings of the Catholic Church are literally not extremely contained in the Bible -- yet keep on with logically from what's there. i imagine that the concept of the stainless concept follows logically from the believe that Jesus is God -- and God would not be carried by technique of a lady whose soul became marked with sin. As for Mary very last a Virgin, there are 2 motives why Catholics believe she stayed a virgin at the same time as Protestants imagine that she had different children. the first reason includes translation mistakes and the 2d reason is that Protestants have excluded books from the Bible that recommend that she remained a virgin. First -- the translation mistakes. The KJV says that Mary had no kin with Joseph till Jesus became born. In English, that's implied that they DID have kin after his delivery. notwithstanding, contained in the unique Greek, there is not any such implication. The KJV also refers back to the brothers of Jesus. notwithstanding, the unique Greek makes use of a note that basically means 'close relative.' Catholics believe that those people are cousins. The Apocrypha has been part of the Catholic Bible because the Bible became finalized on the Council of Rome contained in the fourth century. Protestants have thrown out those books. yet in a unmarried of those books, Mary expresses concerns over her marriage to Joseph because she has taken a vow of virginity. Catholics believe that the mummy of Jesus ought to not in any respect spoil a vow to God -- so she ought to have remained a virgin -- even after the delivery of Jesus.

Answer 6

The immaculate conception could have been methaphorical, like a lot of the bible, i mean, it ses that god created the world in 7 days, when time is man made, and because God has always been there and always will, a day could mean anything to him, also, how do we know, did He come down and tell us Himself???? Or Adam and Eve, who said that Adam was one guy and Eve was one woman? It has been scientifically proven that to start a human race it takes more than one man and one woman. I am a very religious person and any gaps or contidictions i find in the bible i try to figure out myself using a deeper meaning and if this does not work I mite ask my parish priest. But i do not understand Christians who take the Bible word for word, it contridicts itself many times, and has impossible myths like god ceated the earth in 7 days.

Answer 7

To answer the later part of it:

Jesus was born into the Davidic line, of which Mary was ALSO a part of.
However, Jewish tradition placed great importance of the MALE genelogical line, less of the maternal - but as she was also part of the tribe of Judah, the Davidic line was preserved BOTH in name (Joseph) and in deed (Mary).

And, yes. The so called 'immaculate conception' is a core belief of most Christians.

Answer 8

The Immaculate Conception has nothing to do with the birth of Jesus.
Mary is the I.C.
If, for example you believe in the Lourdes visitation? Mary said to Bernadette, "I am The Immaculate Conception"
So Mary did not conceive without the help of Joseph!

Answer 9

You can trace the linage of Christ right through from Adam, David etc... By the way Christians believe in the Virgin Birth and the impeccability of Christ (a sinless humanity). Roman Catholicism teaches the immaculate conception (a title of one of her Doctrines).

Answer 10

Joseph was married to Mary when Jesus was born, and it was assumed he was the father, so his lineage was traced. In the days before DNA, many of our own states followed this procedure also.

Luke's genealogy has different ancestors and is thought to be the forebears of Mary. She was also descended from David.

I hope this helps.

Answer 11

Do you know what the Immaculate Conception is? Jesus wasn't the Immaculate Conception----Mary was. In order for Mary to be free of sin so that Jesus Christ could be born sinless, Mary had to be sinless, as well.