Ruth, at Naomi's prompting, goes to Boaz to initiate the Torah law of "yibum." This is the process whereby the closest male relative to a dead man marries the widow; the Biblical account of Onan and Tamar is another example of "yibum."
Because Ruth was a Moabite, Naomi was worried she would not be accepted by the Jews. That's why Naomi suggested such a private time.
However, Boaz did not accept Ruth's implied offer of sex resulting in marriage because he was aware of a closer male relative who had a stronger claim to her than he did. Once this male relative waived his right to marry Ruth, Boaz took her as his wife.
Additional info:
The Hebrew word for "feet" does not have a "double meaning;" the phrase "between the feet" would generally refer to the genital areas of men or women.
2006-08-01 07:51:16
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answer #1
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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Look on the reply from john b adored - "the cause of Jesus' family tree..." he explains. I'll guess he's ignorant of the family tree in Luke, laughably tracing Jesus again seventy five generations to Adam and Eve!! As M. Paulkovich wrote: Christianity surely is determined by legendary "Adam." Without Adam, Eve, and a speakme snake, Jesus' assignment is moot and useless and void. Christians are traditionally oblivious of this given that they have got been proven a family tree in Matthew (which handiest is going again to "Abraham"), and are hardly ever if ever uncovered to Luke's disparate and childlike variation—which if actual might negate all of evolution and actually so much recognized historical past and technological know-how. According to the nameless creator of Luke, a trifling seventy-5 generations separate "Adam"—and the commencing of the universe—from the delivery of Jesus a few two,000 years in the past.
2016-08-28 14:27:55
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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the bible has many a difficult phrase to understand, and a lay person might misinterept the latin translation, but as i think it would mean, to take of your shoes and lay besides boaz, there is no other explanation as i dont think socks were invented then, crude sandles were used, but i could be wrong, cause i have what a common translation of that sentence ment
2006-08-01 08:04:37
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answer #3
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answered by cluelesskat maria 4
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In the context of the chapter (Ruth 3), it appears to be an act of submission.
2006-08-01 07:52:46
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answer #4
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answered by jake_deyo 4
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The Hebrew word for "feet" had a double meaning. It also meant a man's private parts. So if he woke up next to her, and he was fully exposed, shall we say, he would assume he had had sex with her, and feel honor bound to marry her.
2006-08-01 07:51:46
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answer #5
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answered by cross-stitch kelly 7
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Uncovering his feet was to wake him up. She was making herself available to him for marriage. If they had sex they would be married.
2006-08-01 07:54:37
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answer #6
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answered by byhisgrace70295 5
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Act of submission...custom then.
2006-08-01 07:54:22
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answer #7
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answered by SAHM2_1B_1G 3
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