In other words, is there a scenario where having sex with your wife constitutes as rape?
2006-08-01 04:55:04 · 23 answers · asked by ali 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yes, any time she says no. As to whether or not Muslims see it that way I have no idea, and it shouldn't matter.
2006-08-01 04:56:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
That's a good question, because various cultures have different norms about the husband's right to sex with his wife. Some cultures have it that the husband has all the rights and that when he wants sex the wife must submit. Some cultures have it that the wife must submit unless there is some medical reason that she can't have sex (including presence of her period). Some cultures have it that the woman has equal rights to the man including the right to say no without having any reason at all.
Some perspective that may help women to understand a little. A woman can participate in sex even if she is not particularly aroused, whereas a man must attain an erection and maintain the erection throughout intercourse. So most cultures have it that the man is mainly the one who initiates sex when he is aroused (though the woman can use her wiles to coax an erection). If the man is not aroused then forget it for now, ladies. So if you say no when he has it,, and then later he is tired and sleepy or watching football you can wile away and will only be frustrated till he is ready again,,, and then hopefully, you will be smart enough to get into some romance. Hopefully, he will know how to arouse you so you will want to say yes.
2006-08-01 05:04:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i don't be responsive to a guy who divorced his spouse after she became raped. this is obtainable that he might and he probable might. i be responsive to that some muslim adult adult males are nonetheless finding for better halves that have been abducted on an identical time as vacationing in another country and that they nonetheless decide for his or her better halves back whether they have no toddlers. in islam rapists are punished, no longer married . who might marry a violent guy no longer to show a rapist? why? women who have been raped are much less probably to get married , little or no possibility very almost none , yet they do no longer look to be blamed via God fearing human beings whether gossip approximately them will unfold via people who're ignorant or friends and family individuals of rapists. so yeah a woman will continually be the sufferer , yet islam does not say that she shouldn't marry or ought to be blamed , it discourages human beings from harming her even via mere gossip which has an fairly grim punishment. your husband would have spoken a pair of particular incident besides the undeniable fact that it optimistic has no longer something to do with islam. i'm a muslim female and that i basically had a communication with my chum , her sister is getting a divorce with the aid of fact her husband verbally abused her, he never even lay a finger on her. never think of that sadists/rapists/criminlas are known via muslim women or islamic society , basically in keeping with possibility some exceptions.
2016-11-03 11:08:14 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Does it matter to a person who has no faith at all? The Bible and the Qu'ran speak of men who have sex with women who are not even their wives. That is fornication, it is a sin against God. Are you free of that sin? God sees fornication as a form of rape. Are you guilty of raping a woman that is not even you wife?
2006-08-01 04:58:02 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. In Islamic cultures, the wife is the property of the man, and nothing he can do to her constitutes rape or abuse.
2006-08-01 04:58:11 · answer #5 · answered by Sappho 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes: a husband forcing his wife to have a sexual relation is considered as a rape - whether he follows a religion or not.
It's a question of human rights, not a question of religion.
2006-08-01 04:59:36 · answer #6 · answered by Axel ∇ 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, in Islam, a wife is (and women in general are) considered property. Turkey, a modern Muslim country (the one and only), has laws protecting women. However, there is a strong drive there to become more religious and adhere to Islamic laws which treat women as second class citizens (as evident in just about all Muslim countries).
2006-08-01 05:01:15 · answer #7 · answered by EDDie 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
YES......... When she says NO then NO MEANS NO!!!!!!!!
anything after that is rape. RAPE is doing something to another when the other specificlly says no...... why do you islams not understand that. or why do you ask stupied questions? if you wife say no i choose not to f*** you and you do anyway that is rape.... in any nationality race or state......
2006-08-01 05:00:34 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have a Muslim friend who tells me that once the man wants to have sex the woman must comply. She says it is written in the Koran that a woman's duty is to please her husband at all times. I have not read the Koran myself so I'm not sure. In my opinion sex without consent is considered as rape, regardless what religion has to say about it.
2006-08-01 06:31:51 · answer #9 · answered by Ash 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. According to the Quoran ... she must submit.
Women are not considered people in Islam ... they are property. If a guy commits adultery ... he might get a few lashes. If a wife does it ... under Sharia Law, she can be put to death.
2006-08-01 05:00:28 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
wats worng with...stop asking stpid question...as u have ritejust like that a woman too has equal rights...u shud ask her permissionb4 having sex...she 2 a human...n plrespect her decision
Ali stop asking such ques
ROB u r wrong. pls read the qurannonmuslims then u will know wat quran says abt islam...dot judge islam just because of peoples practices...JUDGE it by THE holy QURAN
MAY PEACE N BLESSINGS OF ALLAH B ON U ALL
2006-08-01 05:00:28 · answer #11 · answered by pearl_indian 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋