By declaring the Bible "inerrant," does fundamentalist Christianity break the 1st commandment (below), placing the words of The Bible as a God above God himself and making the Bible constrain God into only acting in the ways and times described in it? Explain your thoughts.
"I AM THE LORD YOUR GOD, WHO BROUGHT YOU OUT OF THE LAND OF EGYPT, OUT OF THE HOUSE OF BONDAGE. YOU SHALL HAVE NO OTHER GODS BEFORE ME." (Exodus 20:2-3)
2006-08-01 04:07:25 · 5 answers · asked by NHBaritone 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I've kind of fleshed this idea out some on my blog:
http://blog.360.yahoo.com/blog-t0BORtswfacdeOuprS2h8mE-?cq=1
2006-08-01 04:09:12 · update #1
The bible says that All scripture is God-breathed, and is useful for teaching and rebuking.
Think of the Bible as God's love letter to you.
2006-08-01 04:12:14 · answer #1 · answered by Texasprincess 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't think that it does. It's comparing apples and oranges. The first commandment is referring to the worship of other deities apart from Yahweh, and declaring that the scripture of the Tanakh is inerrant is not the same as worship. This is of course assuming that the Tanakh is inerrant, which is another matter of debate.
2006-08-01 11:19:41 · answer #2 · answered by Ѕємι~Мαđ ŠçїєŋŧιѕТ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your logic is circular and yet makes no sense. Fundamentalists believe that the bible is the word of Gos. As such it would not violate the first commandment.
If you're going to ask rhetorical questions at least ask intelligent ones.
2006-08-01 11:13:38 · answer #3 · answered by Billy! 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the people that copied it was fallible they changed some of it to suit them selves
2006-08-01 11:14:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wtf you talkin about?
2006-08-01 11:11:17 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋