My first language is Japanese.
Please teach me the minings of these terms.
1 It has rained for 2 weeks.
2 It has been raining for 2 weeks.
Is the first one correct precisely?
I guess 1st one means, the rainy-day can be 1day to 14days i doesnt mean continuing of rainy-day and we should say, for the LAST 2 weeks.
2nd one means. the rainy-day is 14days. continuing of rainy-day.
I mean, in first one possibly the rainy-day is 1 to 14days. i doesnt mean continuing of rainy-day.
what do you think?
2006-08-01 02:56:38 · 26 answers · asked by joejapan8 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
one more.
If[ it had rained ] means, stopped raining after 14 rainy days.
Should I say FOR THE LAST 2 WEEKS?
2006-08-01 03:33:11 · update #1
No1 : means it has rained for about 14 days but it is not raining now.
No 2 : means it was raining for 14 days and it is still raining.
Hope this helps
2006-08-01 03:04:00 · answer #1 · answered by nononsense 2 · 2⤊ 2⤋
They're the same. Going natural, the two sound right. But the first sentence would mean that the rain has just finished... One of the uses of simple present perfect tense (has + pp) is when the activity has just been done. With this, we become interested in the result... It suggests a completed action...
The other sentence (has + been + v(ing)) means that the activity coninues to happen.... With this, we become interested with the activity, not the result... It suggests a continuing action...
Take this:
I've painted the ceiling ( This suggests that I've just done painting and I did it completely)
I've been painting the ceiling (Up to tjis monent, I am still painting the ceiling)
HOwever, it doesn't matter whether you use it has rained for the last two weeks or it has rained for two weeks only for other people to get what you mean...
Common sense among people you talk to would take place and they don't need to analyze your every sentence.. if they have some comon sense...
Try learning English BY SENSE not BY THE RULES . If you go by the rules, you could definitely find hard learning because you make things complicated.. Read a lot of books and you can make it easier...
That's all
2006-08-01 04:24:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Personally i feel that the 2nd quote makes more sense 'It has been raining for 2 weeks' however you could use the 1st sentence in a different context e.g in conversation with somebody refering to the past, you could say, 'It has rained for 2 weeks,before'. I hope that has been of some help to you. Dont beat yourself up over it, the English language is a complicated,silly language. There are too many words meaning exactly the same thing.
2006-08-01 03:23:08 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The second answer is correct when the rain has started in the past (e.g. 6 a.m) and has not stopped raining until now (now it is e.g. 6 p.m) and perhaps it will keep going on raining for the next few minutes or hours or even til the end of time.
The first answer is correct when the rain has just stopped and you look out of your window and you find your house under water. So maybe you would say: My house is under water because it has rained for 2 weeks.
2006-08-01 12:47:59 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Number one could be saying that sometime in the past it rained continuously for two weeks or it could mean it started raining two weeks ago and it is still raining.
Number two can only mean that the rain started two weeks ago and it's still raining.
The problem with the present perfect (#1) is that it can have a lot of meanings. The present perfect progressive (#2) is much clearer about when you are talking about.
2006-08-01 03:10:06 · answer #5 · answered by starcow 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your idea is correct.
The first phrase can mean that the rain has continued for the past fourteen days but does not continue today. People would use the first phrase in this situation.
The second phrase can mean that it has been raining for the past fourteen days and the rain continues today.
However, people use the phrases interchangeably to mean either of these.
Your English is clearly excellent. Most English speakers would not pick up on this difference.
2006-08-01 03:08:35 · answer #6 · answered by Fluorescent 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Firstly the word you are looking for is not mining but meaning.
Both sentences mean roughly the same and in conversation would be inter changed. Both to me would mean that it had rained at some time every day for 2 weeks although it is possible that some would take the second sentence to mean continuous rain.
2006-08-01 03:09:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sounds like you have a good grasp of English. They actually both mean the same. "It rained for two weeks" would be past tense, as in it rained for two weeks then stopped. Both 1 & 2 suggest there have been 14 days of constant rain up to and including the moment the phrases were spoken. (1) would be clearer if you added the word "now" at the end.
The main aim is to be understood - and you are.
Arigato and sayonara.
2006-08-01 03:04:34 · answer #8 · answered by izzieere 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Here's what they imply:
1 -- Means the rain is over with, but is rained for 14 days.
2 -- Means it is still raining and has been raining for 14 days.
Both are gramatically correct, and could actually be used interchangably in most situations. English is a tricky language.
2006-08-01 03:03:53 · answer #9 · answered by thatgirl 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
OK if you using a DVD player, so there is an option before start movie in main menu>> close Caption / sub title when ever you are watching any English movies select that close Caption-subtitle>> turn On, by that you can read all those dialog as well you were listening that too, So that way you can learn more English,thats an easy way, for making sentence perfection of grammer and remembering use full words
2006-08-01 04:52:44 · answer #10 · answered by RAMBO 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
English
2006-08-01 03:00:50 · answer #11 · answered by Mishrik 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋