This verse is one where Paul wrote a long list of what we shouldn't do. Don't kill one another. Don't lie or cheat or steal. The list goes on to include fornication, idolatry, whoremongering, perjury, etc. He also includes "malokois" and "arsenokoitai."
What's a malokois? What's an arsenokoitai? Actually, those two Greek words have confused scholars to this very day.
Greek scholars say that in first century the Greek word malaokois probably meant "effeminate call boys." The New Revised Standard Version says "male prostitutes."
As for arsenokoitai, Greek scholars don't know exactly what it means.
In 1958, for the first time in history, a person translating that mysterious Greek word into English decided it meant homosexuals, even though there is, in fact, no such word in Greek or Hebrew.
In the past,people used Paul's writings to support slavery, segregation, and apartheid.Is it happening again?Is a word in Greek that has no clear definition being used to condemn gays?
2006-08-01 02:14:35 · 7 answers · asked by Thinx 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
One reference work sites arsenokoitai as equivlent to: sodomites. Literally "liers with males" English for the latin translation of: masculorum concubitores...The scripture is often used to tell people that homosexuality is wrong, however, If ever someone was to point that out one could tell them that fornication is just as bad. If they are not complying with God's standards on that matter, then they are (in accordance with matthew 7:1-5) being hypocrites. yep yep.
2006-08-01 02:32:22 · answer #1 · answered by Akwat'k Ink 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Good Biblical scholarship. It's interesting isn't it that so many people have taken that one word, (which as you point out is unclear in meaning) and used that to build their thinking around. How many people use this verse, but have no problem bringing a lawsuit against someone else? or reviling someone else, like say, a homosexual...
I seem to remember hearing that a possible meaning was that Paul was referring to the practice of using young male prostitutes as part of pagan temple practices, and that for Christians to engage in this was not a good use of "freedom in Christ," or freedom from Jewish law.
2006-08-01 17:15:22 · answer #2 · answered by keri gee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Being a what you might say "new" Christian, not in my faith but in my studies of the bible, I do not see anywhere in this verse that remotely leans towards being gay. The closest word i could find to malaokois is malafactor, and this means "evildoer". So as far as i can tell it just depicts a person that spreads evil maliciously.
And effiminate=unmanly. So in other words "unmanly call on boys"? Yikes that seriously does not make sense. My bible does not even mention "boys" in this verse. I believe this is saying unmanly in a way of not lowering oneself to a beasts level of mentality. We are not elephants people!!!! Use your noodle!!!!
2006-08-01 14:48:00 · answer #3 · answered by JodiBaby 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Seriously, you know the answer to this. Condemnation is the greatest tool Christianity has. It thrives off guilt. Any word that is unclear they will try to make fit with their idea of what they believe it should say so that they may more effectively push guilt on groups of people. They say no man is without sin. They have to make sure of that by creating enough sins to cover everyone.
2006-08-01 13:43:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 Corinthians 6:9 is used because it does condem homosexuality. its consitent with the rest of early christian teachings.
Christianity does not accept homosexuality!
you cant be a christian and be gay ... you only fool yourself.
Go read Plato. he didnt mind homosexuals, and wrote more profound things.
as you pointed out. Christians also use the bible to justify other evil things. why associate with them at all. Take some of Jesus with you and get out. Its better for you in the end.
Im pretty sure they know the word for homosexual in the greek, the greeks had lots of them. Also homosexuals are not new.
2006-08-01 09:25:17 · answer #5 · answered by CJunk 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It means in plain language ****'f'ers.
Today they do the women that way. But in those days only men would do that amongst themselves.
2006-08-01 09:24:43 · answer #6 · answered by chris_muriel007 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dear Brother Gay
If all this is true according to you - then
Why did GOD destroy Sodom and Gomora?
2006-08-01 10:06:26 · answer #7 · answered by shafiq 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋