Since most (not all Christians) know that Bible became bible only in 325 AD, how come when asking Question from Luke or marks many Christians trough explanation from John gospel.
Are they ignorant ot they think bible was written as one piece?
John wrote his revelation almost at the end of first century and Luke is 30 years after Jesus died. Do they really think that John knows what Luke meant 40 years before?
We know that different parts of the religions were using different Gospels as teaching before 325. So if the same question we ask now would be asked Luke at the time he wrote his Gospel the answer would be.. Hey wait for 40 years and John will answer to you?
The point is that if Question comes from gospel than Question should be answered from same gospel. Does any1 agree with me?
2006-07-31
08:16:33
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17 answers
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asked by
PicassoInActions
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in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Actually, the Bible took its form at the Council of Nicea in the year 787!
Wow, it was in 397 AD but was practicly assembled in 325
2006-07-31
08:26:27 ·
update #1
to BrotherMichael
Would be nice if you could show us the source of your conclusions.
The idea assemble the bible was because there was no scriptures together. Each region was teaching their own Scriptures. And if you do some research you would see that over 270 separate scriptures were circulating before bible. and Each teaching was based on some of Gospels but not on all together. And for the John i wander when did he have inspired?
Did he have inspired when Jesus was alive? Or almost 70 years later when he was practically old men when he wrote his gospel? I guess his memory was better than our computer memory.
2006-07-31
08:31:47 ·
update #2
Why ppl telling me that bible existed before 325. Scriptures did exist before but i guess confusion is the word 'bible"
Sorry for those who still thinks bible is one book written by one person.
The whole idea of bible was to compile all scriptures together, and till 325 teachings were based on scripture not on bible the way we know today.
Mark ( 3 of the others took around 80% of his work) was the first Gospel and before any other Gospels i guess ppl had to understanding the teaching without waiting for some1 to come up with an explanation and clarifications many years later.
2006-07-31
08:42:52 ·
update #3
Well, lets get something straight, the Old Testament was the Scriptures used at the time of Christ in the form of the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Jewish Scriptures. Second, all the books of the New testament were completed by the end of the first century and in use by then. It is believed that Matthew's gospel was completed within 15 years of the resurrection with Mark, who received his gospel from Peter, done shortly after. The 325 AD date is DaVinci code nonsense, the Bible was completed and used extensively before then. We compare Scripture with Scripture. We may compare a passage of Luke, who was one of the best ancient historians, with John who was an eyewitness to the events, to verify that what he wrote coincides with an eyewitness account. We also use the writings of the early church fathers and extra-Biblical sources (Josephus).
2006-07-31 08:25:35
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answer #1
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answered by BrotherMichael 6
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If the bible was not written till 325 as you say, what did Jesus read from when He read from the scrolls? Are you saying that was not the bible? How could He quote from Deut. if He had not read the bible? Or know any of the prophecies? The bible itself says to answer not just from one quote but from here and there. Not just one verse but here a little and there a little. So to answer a question in John, you may need to go to the Old Testament writers as that may be where he got his writings from in the first place and only quoted it. You need to also know some of the customs of the time to be able to understand what it is really meaning by what it says. Would you call it adultery to sit down beside a woman? If you do it in Israel, you would be accused of it as it is the custom there that if you even sit by a woman, you are committing adultery with her. That is why you need to know a bit of the background of the customs of the day to understand what is going on. So no, I do not agree with you but as the bible itself says, you should answer from many places, not just one.
2006-07-31 08:29:45
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answer #2
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answered by ramall1to 5
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No one of The Christian Faith would aggree... you seem to have some knowledge but no understanding... what is it you want clarified?
The Bible is a colection of words from many. but it's inspiration was from God. It would be more proper to say God Authored it and dictated it to the scribes of the time. The original texts from well before 325 AD nolonger exist. And most likly did not even in 325AD... What we have now are copies of copies of copies of fragments of copies. that have been translated and retranslated many times over the centuries.
There is no inerrant text of God's Word in existance today... It is only through the leading of The Holy Spirit that any hope of understanding God's intent can be found in what has been preserved for us today...
The Salvation Message has remained intact in The hearts of God's people, intact to this day.
All of the test of The Bible is interconnected. What is "The New" is the fullfilment of "The Old" Both are needed to understand the other... This is done by the leading of The Holy Spirit. God's Word is For every one who will come to Him in TheWay He proscribes.... Understanding of it will not come with out comeing to God First.
The Bible is not intended for the non-believer who is not honestly seeking God's Word
2006-07-31 08:29:25
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answer #3
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answered by IdahoMike 5
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I see where your confusion comes from but I do not entirely agree. One of the major aspects of the Christian faith is the the bible, although written by man was inspired by God. So if you believe this then it's easy to believe that God inspired each author to write their Gospel in support of the other Gospels.
When the bible was put together one of the major things they considered was constancy among the Gospels, as well as Divine influence as to which scriptures truly seemed to be inspired by God.
One other important thing to keep in mind is each Gospel had a slightly different objective and audience because of this one Gospel may be very vague where another one is very specific.
It's just like witnesses to a crime, why would you need more the one to try a murder case? because each person probably saw different aspects of the crime and have a different insight.
2006-07-31 08:27:12
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answer #4
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answered by Dane_62 5
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if the question pertains to a specific gospel sure it should be ansered in the way asked... but if you ask a question the way you just did you made so many side comments someone is inclined to try and comment on other aspect you bring up
So if you want a focused answer ask a focused question, but you question reads more like a statement with many parts
actually, the church recieved the books acknowledges as the new testament long before that time
all but 11 verses of the new testament are found in quotation by the church fathers before the end of the second century... showing early acceptance
2006-07-31 08:30:14
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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For me The Bible is written by The Holy Spirit, which the disciples get from Jesus .(is written in the New Testament how the disciples get the Holy Spirit) That is whay their Bible is eternal and others no.When i read a little from Bible,than i cloth my eyes and for a second i see(with close eyes) many(12-14) light stars around my face,the Bible is Divine.(this Light i see after i pray too)(try you too, to do this, i think you will see the Light).
2006-07-31 08:35:12
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answer #6
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answered by mirna 3
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Actually, the Bible took its form at the Council of Nicea in the year 787!
2006-07-31 08:20:33
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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AROUND 325 bc THERE WERE MAINLY
GOAT-SHEPHARDS in da desert , with
nothing better to do ...... than to fantisize and
write hocus-pocus... (The Desert does THAT
2U !) .
If ONLY Elvis was born 700BC , and had
decreed that EVERY TENT, HOUSE etc.
HAD TO HAVE A JUKEBOX , AND HAD TO
BE PLAYED 5 times A DAY .
what a wonderful World this would be !!
2006-07-31 08:28:28
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answer #8
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answered by Moonlite gambler 3
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I suppose it depends on the question.
For example, if you asked "Why do Lutherans believe such-and-such," Lutherans accept all four Gospels. If you are asking what the community of Mark's Gospel thought, then a more restricted base for answers would be appropriate.
2006-07-31 08:26:39
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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And on that note, how come when asked to clarify the validity of the bible Christians manage to answer with quotes from...the bible?
2006-07-31 08:20:32
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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