2006-07-31 07:43:54 · 27 answers · asked by enord 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
why can i,but not god, see that the slave that lives on a day or 2 is hemorraging internally?
2006-07-31 07:53:18 · update #1
Believers in the Bible do not try to understand any of it. they simply attribute it all to faith. No reason to understand anything - God will provide everything (but an education!)
2006-07-31 07:50:42 · answer #1 · answered by YDoncha_Blowme 6 · 4⤊ 2⤋
Exo 21:20-21 -
The Jewish authorities appear to be right in referring this law, like those in Exo_21:26-27, Exo_21:32, to foreign slaves (see Lev_25:44-46). The protection here afforded to the life of a slave may seem to us but a slight one; but it is the very earliest trace of such protection in legislation, and it stands in strong and favorable contrast with the old laws of Greece, Rome, and other nations. If the slave survived the castigation a day or two, the master did not become amenable to the law, because the loss of the slave was accounted, under the circumstances, as a punishment.
2006-07-31 14:48:21 · answer #2 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The laws back then were pretty strict. It was also common practice to own slaves and so there were laws that were set up to protect the slaves. If you read a few verses further you will see that there are punishments for causing injury to a slave as well as the punishment hear for beating them to death. The part about the pregnant woman isn't talking about someone just beating up on a pregnant woman. It is referring to two men fighting and during the fight causing harm to a pregnant woman. These laws are outdated now, although there teachings in the New Testament that deal with slaves and masters. Actually, if people would put them into practice for the workplace we would have happier and more product work places.
2006-07-31 15:18:45 · answer #3 · answered by JAK 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Exodus 21:20-21 (King James Version)
20 And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod, and he die under his hand; he shall be surely punished.
21 Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished: for he is his money.
This is not godly, regardless of whether it is found in the Bible or not. A verse most likely used by slave owners back in the day.
2006-07-31 14:51:41 · answer #4 · answered by Beorh House 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This? 20 "If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished, 21 but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property.
Um ... yeah, I took it to mean that I can beat my slaves as long as I don't kill them. Oh wait, I don't have any slaves ...
2006-07-31 14:49:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is meant to punish excessive discipline
It also means that slaves were valuable in the sight of God to protect
Remarkably, God was prophesied to someday be valued at the price of a female slave, 30 pieces of silver in the book of Zephariah and Jesus took the form of a servant, even a slave
in fact to rightly serve God, one must first let Jesus serve you
The Son of Man has not come to be served but to serve and give his life a ransom for many Mark 8:45
2006-07-31 14:52:23 · answer #6 · answered by whirlingmerc 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sure, but you should know that maimonedes holds that if one were to strike a slave with a rock or another instrument which is normally considered lethal, then no matter how long the slave lingers for, the owner is liable for the death. in the case of a simple rod which would not normally be a lethal weapon, the assumption is that if it didn't cause the death after a day or two, any subsequent death is due to other causes. i bet a medical argument could be made that if the rod caused the death conclusively after any other time, the owner would still be liable.
2006-07-31 14:46:45 · answer #7 · answered by rosends 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have read and studied from front to back more than once and re translated most of the New testament. I now do not dwell in the Old testament it was finished the day Jesus road into town on the Donkey. read that part.
Luck 18:31 was telling them that what was about to happen was the completion of all the Prophecy's of the Old Testament.
2006-07-31 14:53:30 · answer #8 · answered by kritikos43 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I do not believe that God ever agreed nor does he now agree with slavery just as he does not agree with divorce.
The Jews choose to take slaves so laws had to be in place concerning these people. This is the same with divorce. Jesus said when he came that out of the hardness of the people's heart God allowed divorce but from the beginning He did not institute it or agree with it. You find laws given to Moses concerning divorce however.
Slavery just like divorce should not have been so.
2006-07-31 14:51:41 · answer #9 · answered by rltouhe 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Verse 1 of this Chapter says " These are the regulations you must present to Israel."
Which means, these are regulations and they are for Israel, more specifically for Israel at the time God gave the regulations to Moses.
The Israelites were not a nation at this time, so if God had not set out a clear and specific plan of government for the Israelites they would have fallen apart in chaos.
The laws of the nation that you live in now are what you should follow. These regulations were interned for the Israelites when they were traveling to the promise land. Not for us now.
2006-07-31 14:51:35 · answer #10 · answered by Dane_62 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
GOD has great rules
1 > it is ok to own slaves
2 > it is ok to rape slaves
3 > it is ok to beat slaves
4 > it is ok to kill slaves as long as you let them suffer for a couple of days first..
isn't that just great moral instruction ?
and the Christian excuse ... "well everybody else was doing it at the time ..."
(there are reasons to know there is no such thing as a god)
2006-07-31 15:00:37 · answer #11 · answered by PlayTOE- 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋