2006-07-31 05:25:51 · 19 answers · asked by Dr. Chapatin 2 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Jokes & Riddles
same thing.
2006-07-31 06:45:21 · answer #1 · answered by NBGirl 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Funny.80 mins = 1hr 20 mins
2006-07-31 12:28:07 · answer #2 · answered by Frances 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 hr and 20min is the same as 80 min. whats an inverse flight.
2006-07-31 12:27:37 · answer #3 · answered by pshhhhhhhhlizzz 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you know what....I think....if I do the math right....hey! YEAH!!! 1hr 20min. IS 80 min.!!!!!
By the way, why do you need a plane to fly 1 foot? If you are just traveling from the U.S. to Mexico, being that they touch, couldn't you just hop over the boundary line saying "You are now entering Mexico."
2006-07-31 12:31:24 · answer #4 · answered by nick m 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 hr 20 Min = 80 Min !
2006-07-31 12:28:14 · answer #5 · answered by tortugamerlin 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's known in the world that the eart turns around it self from west to east . So each flight got 2 times . For example a flght New York-Cairo & Cairo-New york , have got two different times .
But I mast warn you that there could be other reasons .
2006-07-31 12:36:36 · answer #6 · answered by citizen high 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i hour 20 minutes is 80 minutes
(60 + 20=80)
2006-07-31 12:28:50 · answer #7 · answered by Simplystunning 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually the inverse flight is only 4800 seconds.
2006-07-31 12:29:36 · answer #8 · answered by JasonLee 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its the same u just add 60 minutes(an hour) with 20 minutes it 80 minutes yaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaah
2006-07-31 12:28:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tricky!!!! It is the same amount of time. one hour is sixty minutes plus twenty minutes equals eighty minutes.
2006-07-31 12:28:08 · answer #10 · answered by ALBPACE 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because 1h 20m is 80 mins.
2006-07-31 12:32:42 · answer #11 · answered by tawanna h 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋