Best answer goes to whoever can say which & why...
2006-07-31 02:39:24 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Those would be the same person James the 6th of scotland reunited the crowns of britain and as such was the first king james of england
2006-07-31 02:42:42 · answer #1 · answered by barhud 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
What part of being a King do you not understand. A King is not just the head of state. The form of government the United States started was unheard of at the time it was started. The president can't point his finger at someone and say off with his head. King James was the first on that came up with the idea everyone in his country would speak his English known as the Kings English. He ordered the translation so that everyone could read it. It was translated under his scrutiny. Catholics opposed his idea. When I compare other translations to the KJV Bible I find problems. Nobody changes a Shakespeare play that happened to be written around the same time. What is the problem with the KJV Bible.
2016-03-27 08:35:01 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The best information is located at the link below. The king mentioned, is King James VI of Scotland. Reason behind it? The Bible needed to be translated into English.
2006-07-31 02:45:24 · answer #3 · answered by Angyles Cerddoriaeth 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
King James I is also King James VI of Scotland. He was the first to style himself as King of Great Britain.
But, obviously it is King James the 1st of England, as we all know that England is so much better than Scotland, and so should take precedence......LOL, ONLY JOKING. well i am, i love Scotland, but the reason is probably along similar lines. The English love(d) beating up the Scots and England was the bigger and richer country at the time, so it does make sense that he was mostly referred to as King of Engalnd.
2006-07-31 03:01:08 · answer #4 · answered by flower 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
King James I of England.
He was the ruling king who ordered the the Bible's translation into English so his subjects would be able to read and own a Bible without knowing the Latin or Hebrew languge. A Bible for the common man.
2006-07-31 02:44:25 · answer #5 · answered by theaterhanz 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
as he followed after Elizabeth, he would be Protestant. It was the lovely Elizabeth that made the choice to marry England instead of marrying someone from the continent and share the throne.
My favorite part concerning the original KJV is a little typo in the ten commandments: Thou shalt commit adultry.
2006-07-31 02:48:55 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are both one and the same person, but he is better known as King James I.
2006-07-31 02:44:35 · answer #7 · answered by hellzbellz 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What we're talking is the Holy Bible (KJV) is the seventh Bible, as if one made better from six others collectively called good; As God saw "good" x 6, then "very good" seventh time in Genesis 1. Note: Such info is found in the guidelines for translators:
http://www.godshew.org/BibleTranslators.htm#Guidelines
1. Tyndale's Bible
2. Matthew's Bible (by Tyndale and John Rogers)
3. Coverdale's Bible
4. Cramer's (Great Bible) printed by Whitchurch
5. Geneva Bible
6. Bishop's Bible
7. Holy Bible (also called KJV)
So also we're talking "King" James I is made better (as if the seventh) than the previous high & mighty "Prince" James VI; And notably King "by the grace of God"; As is cleverly and allegorically noted in the Epistle Dedicatory of Bible Translators. http://www.godshew.org/EpistleDedicatory.htm
And therein their Epistle Dedicatory the Translators of the Bible also note the King (of such Prince/King) is the "King of Great Britain, France, and Ireland" (Great Britain being England, Wales, Scotland); Also defender of the faith (the law is not of faith, so defender of grace), & c: catholic(universal).
What's also noted is Translators of the Bible were both maligned and traduced by both popish persons (Roman Catholics) and self-conceited brethren (Protestants) when making the Holy Bible, also called KJV, and Author-ized version.
So, no doubt both the Roman Catholics and Protestants also later published their own per-versions of KJV, both void of the Epistle Dedicatory, since it's notable the mandate of Oxford University Press was to make money printing. For the original KJV (Holy Bible) was never copyrighted nor intended for sale; But made for one purpose: to make God's holy truth (grace is sufficient) the more known (throughout the kingdom).
And the Holy Bible made better notably uses the most appropriate wording to help (not hinder) Bible readers seek and find allegory clues needed to solve the mystery thereof in time. Many(deceived by many) still say it contains errors, but after 100,000 hrs of studying the Holy Bible I find nearly 50 Translators of the Bible, "learned men all", unanimously agreed on every word translated, which was also subject to scrutiny of all learned men in the kingdom, even bishops, whether Catholic or Protestant; so then fully open to scrutiny, but not to mutiny.
Translators also wished both King and kingdom "Grace Mercy Peace", notably "through JESUS CHRIST", as if SHOUTING a hint to readers "peace with God" is "through Jesus->Christ", in Christ of JC, not in Jesus of CJ (mirrorly the reverse of JC).
The "grace" of our Lord Jesus Christ with you all. Amen.
2006-07-31 03:39:46 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
england, he was an avid christian and wanted to be remembered. He may have been protestant...i can't be sure
2006-07-31 02:43:31 · answer #9 · answered by Michael J with wings 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both.
2006-07-31 02:57:42 · answer #10 · answered by LP S 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋