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On my previous question i asked about bible-interpretations. I used Romans 1:26-27 as an example, because i do not interprete it as being about homosexuality.

In Romans 1:26-27 the apostle Paul describes non-Jewish women who exchange "natural use for unnatural" and non-Jewish men who "leave the natural use of women, working shame with each other."

When i go back 2,000 years and try to understand why, i understand this:

Paul is writing this letter to Rome after his missionary tour of the Mediterranean. On his journey Paul had seen great temples built to honor Aphrodite, Diana, and other fertility gods and goddesses of sex and passion instead of the one true God the apostle honors. Apparently, these priests and priestesses engaged in some odd sexual behaviors -- including castrating themselves, carrying on drunken sexual orgies, and even having sex with young temple prostitutes (male and female) -- all to honor the gods of sex and pleasure.

2006-07-30 10:24:41 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

The Bible is clear that sexuality is a gift from God. He celebrates our passion. But the Bible is also clear that when passion gets control of our lives, we're in deep trouble.

When we live for pleasure, when we forget that we are God's children and that God has great dreams for our lives, we may end up serving the false gods of sex and passion, just as they did in Paul's time. In our obsession with pleasure, we may even walk away from the God who created us -- and in the process we may cause God to abandon all the great dreams God has for our lives.

Did these priests and priestesses get into these behaviors because they were lesbian or gay? I don't think so. Did God abandon them because they were practicing homosexuals? No.

The people Paul had in mind refused to acknowledge and worship God, and for this reason were abandoned by God. And being abandoned by God, they sank into sexual depravity.

2006-07-30 10:24:56 · update #1

I feel certain this passage says a lot about God, but nothing about homosexuality as we understand it.

also note that Romans 2 begins with "Therefore, [referring to Romans 1], you have no excuse, whoever you are, when you judge others; for in passing judgment on another you condemn yourself..." Even after he describes the disturbing practices he has seen, Paul warns us that judging others is God's business, not ours.

(Note, i'm not gay, i seem to have to say that when i ask such questions, i'm also not a Christian, i'm just interested in the Bible)

2006-07-30 10:25:20 · update #2

14 answers

"Apparently, these priests and priestesses engaged in some odd sexual behaviors -- including castrating themselves, carrying on drunken sexual orgies, and even having sex "

I'm just curious - how did these priests & priestesses engage in sexual orgies if they castrated themselves? Very curious.

2006-07-30 10:30:11 · answer #1 · answered by carl l 6 · 0 1

Well, this is not an answer just an inquiry.

At the bottom of your question you added your little "note", and you stated that you are NOT a Christian. If you aren't and are so interested in the Bible and morals and scripture, then what do you believe in? Im not trying to offend you , just curious because you seem to have a pretty good knowledge of the scriptures and seem to be questioning the interpretation, but if you don't believe in Jesus Christ then why would morals effect you? Morals come from God, don't they? So then if you don't believe in him, then why would it matter?

I hope you don't take this offensive just I see more people question different aspects of the Bible, or morals and i just wanted to know your stance or plain and simply why.

2006-07-30 10:45:32 · answer #2 · answered by lame 1 · 0 0

A person is wrong to blame God, for others sinking into sexual depravity.

Adam tried to blame God for his sin when he said it was the woman whom YOU gave me. She gave me the fruit.

Doesn't work.

Paul wasn't bothered by the great temples built to honor Aphrodite, Diana, and other fertility gods.
He went to preach and teach. And preach he did.

Romans 1:26-27 is just one of the many admonitions we as Christians adhere to.
Romans 1:26-27 does pertain to homosexuality.

2006-07-30 10:41:32 · answer #3 · answered by rangedog 7 · 0 0

Paul isn't simply talking about non-Jews in Romans 1. He's talking about people who have given themselves over to pagan practices because they have ignored the truth of who God really is. For that reason God gave them over to depraved lusts, one of which is homosexuality: men "leaving the natural use of women, working shame with each other."

2006-07-30 10:37:52 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Romans is quite clear that this passage is about homosexual practice and scholars over the centuries have recognized this up to the present day (eg: see NIV Bible study notes).
Homosexuality is abhorrent to God because it destroys the basic building-block of society, namely, the family. We in western society surely know to our cost what social ills result from the present catastrophic break-down of family structure.

2006-07-30 10:34:36 · answer #5 · answered by hippoterry2005 3 · 1 0

People tend to be more concerned about appearing right then they are of knowing the truth. Therefore, like Peter said, they twist the scriptures - to their own destruction. Your interpretation of Romans is faulty - it says they burned in lust for ONE ANOTHER - not idolatry, though that was a problem also.

2006-07-30 10:33:43 · answer #6 · answered by petezsmg 3 · 0 0

relies upon on no count in case you're concerning the King Jame's version, the previous testomony, or the recent testomony. learn a million Corinthians 6: 9 of the recent testomony to the King Jame's version. you will word that no form of homosexuality, adult adult males mendacity with adult adult males, sodomites or something is stated in this verse.... i assumed it exchange into exciting. yet unfortunately, the verse you're asserting right here, in accordance to the recent testomony, regrettably does condemn homosexuality. except there exchange into some extensive interpretation mistake hundreds of years in the past, the two will maximum in all risk by no ability be waiting to bypass hand in hand.

2016-10-08 12:18:34 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Yes, I think it is talking about homosexuality. It says in verse 27 "and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene". I dont think there is any doubt that it is talking of homosexuality.

2006-07-30 10:32:36 · answer #8 · answered by kaz1 3 · 0 0

God loves all sinners, God hates all sin. I hope all of us always try to do the same. In your argument, you leave out the part about the men 'lusting' after one another. It is hard for me to imagine anyone reading this and not knowing that it refers to homosexual acts:

NIV: 27In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.

KJV:27And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.

2006-07-30 10:42:20 · answer #9 · answered by marklin1972 2 · 0 0

No, it's about idolatry. Read the chapter from verse 18 through 38.

2006-08-05 17:28:54 · answer #10 · answered by taurus 4 · 0 0

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