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have u seen any Aramic script? the font looks very familar to me i do not trust historians and English encyclopedias!! any hoest and brave linguist or historian here? let us learn more about ur view on this question. Aramic= acient Arabic.. What do you think? and Why?

2006-07-30 08:22:15 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

edsawyer
even in the same language the later generation may not understand whole their acient form of their own language because the language always develop with the passage of time. hummmm iam still not satisfied.
okay thanks but WHO and WHERE did ppl start to speak Aramic?

2006-07-30 08:41:21 · update #1

Taivo
what did u say? Hebrews ancestors invented the Araic Abjad? say wahaaa!! who on earth are those ancestors? and who are Arab ancestors? u have PhD in history and useing words like (LMAO) in the middle of ur passage when talking about such serious topic? well, iam afraid that u r the next history scholar who lost my trust in him and his sources. Salaam.

2006-07-30 13:15:16 · update #2

6 answers

Arabic did NOT derive from ancient Aramaic. The writing systems look similar because all of the alphabetic writing systems in the world derived from the ancient Northwest Semitic alphabet of about 1500 BC. The Northwest Semitic language was the language that evolved into Hebrew and Phoenician. How ironic that the ancestors of the Hebrews invented the alphabet for the Arabs. LMAO. But the Aramaic script (Syriac in its various forms) and the Arabic script developed from the same archaic alphabet which developed out of the earliest Northwest Semitic alphabet. But writing systems have NOTHING to do with the relationship of languages. Vietnamese and English use the very same alphabet (the Roman), but are completely unrelated. Aramaic and Arabic are cousins in the Semitic language family.

Aramaic developed in the upper Mesopotamian basin and eventually became the language of the Neo-Babylonian Empire (about the 7th century BC). It became the lingua franca of Mesopotamia, the Levant and Egypt for several centuries, until it was replaced by Greek in the 4th century BC. It has survived in the Middle East for 2500 years. Arabic on the other hand evolved in the southern Arabian peninsula and is first recorded in the 4th century or so.

EDIT: Arabian guy. You need to actually READ the post. The alphabet was invented for the Northwest Semitic language about 1500 BC. That language was the ancestor language to Phoenician and Hebrew. The Hebrews did not invent the abjad. Their ancestors did. That Northwest Semitic abjad is the ancestor to ALL other alphabets (whether true alphabets, abjads, or aphasyllabaries) in the world, including the Arabic abjad. For a detailed description of the history of the Arabic abjad and its descent from the Northwest Semitic abjad, you can look at Bright and Daniels, "The World's Writing Systems" or any other book on the history of writing. This is not a mystery or the truth according to a small number of people. This is the accepted history of writing. It's not under debate.

Arabian Guy, I know you didn't actually read the post because you say I have a PhD in History. LMAO. My sources line clearly says that my PhD is in LINGUISTICS. It's spelled out quite plainly for you. LMAO.

And Arabian Guy, get a sense of irony. ;)

2006-07-30 11:21:30 · answer #1 · answered by Taivo 7 · 0 2

They're both Semitic languages. There is a historical relationship between them, as there is with Hebrew as well. However, they're notr mutually comprehensible. Jesus would not have been able to speak with Muhammad (overlooking the 600-year difference). Aramaic was written in a script which is also connected to, but different from, the Arabic script. But all alphabetic scripts are related to each other anyway.

Aramaic's sole living descendent, Assyrian, is still spoken today in parts of Turkey and the Middle East. It's very different from modern Arabic.

2006-07-30 08:27:42 · answer #2 · answered by XYZ 7 · 0 0

No, although Syriac (a form of Aramaic) did significantly influence Arabic. Hanif comes from the Syriac word Hanipa... The influence was mainly because of the trading between the Hejaz and the Levant (Syriac was spoken in the Levant--Al-Sham, while Arabic in the Hejaz)

Although Aramaic and Arabic are sister languages, they aren't mutually intelligible. A native speaker of either would manage to make out a bunch of words here and there, but not understand it.

2006-07-30 08:41:41 · answer #3 · answered by Sammie 1 · 0 0

Hehe. Symbolically, particular. i exchange into on right here for 7 years below yet another call. somebody have been given my account suspended. So I stayed off for roughly 6 months, made a sparkling account, and right here i'm. :)

2016-10-08 12:14:00 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Yes, true so??

Arabs are the biggest group of Semites on the planet

2006-07-30 08:25:18 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

what's Aramic? ummm never heard of it before...

2006-07-30 11:13:31 · answer #6 · answered by awabian pwincess 2 · 0 0

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