if a pint has 5% alcohol, and a glass of whisky has 40% alcohol, does that mean 8 pint will have da same .....

Question

effect as one whisky ? i'm confused

Answer 1

Yes, except you will bust your bladder and get fatter than a pig! LOL

Answer 2

There are 2 factors here to consider:

1. The relative quantity of alcohol in each drink.
2. What effect the specific concentration of alcohol has on the stomch and intestines.

1. Assuming the whisky is a single (which means 25ml in the UK), that is 25ml x 40% = 10ml alcohol.

A pint is 568ml. Therefore, a pint of whisky would contain 568mls x 40% = 227mls alcohol.

A pint of beer at 5% is 568ml. Therefore, it contains 568ml x 5% = 28.4ml.

So 8 pints of beer contains 28.4 x 8 = 227mls alcohol, which is the same as 1 pint of whisky, and 1 pint of beer is almost as much as a triple whisky.

2. Intoxication is the effect alcohol has on the brain. This is related to the concentration of alcohol in the blood. The faster alcohol gets from the intestines (where it is absorbed) to the blood, the higher the alcohol level in the blood for a given quantity of alcohol consumed (and the more "drunk" you will be).

For alcohol to be absorbed it has to get out of the stomach and into the intestines. This is regulated by how much the pyloric sphincter on the stomach opens to allow it through.

Weak drinks such as beer, due to their large volume, take a fair time to go through, and also tend to take a fair time to drink. Therefore, they are absorbed fairly slowly and hence it takes a considerable quantity of beer to become intoxicated.

Strong drinks such as spirits, have a high concentration of alcohol and this irritated the stomach lining. This causes the pyloric sphincter to close down and hence, while a large quantity could be drunk quickly, the stomach will hang on to it for a long time, and hence again the release into the blood stream is slow.

Medium strength drinks such as wine, port, sherry, are not strong enough to irritate, and also contain more alcohol per unit volume than beer. Hence more alcohol gets into the intestines more quickly, and hence you get drunker quicker.

Sparkling drinks such as champagne, and strong mixers (eg double or triple rum and coke, or most cocktails), are both of a non-irritating strength, and the gas distends the stomach, causing the pyloric sphincter to open, speeding absorbtion. This makes you get a high peak of alcohol concentration and hence why "the bubbles go straight to your head".

So, to summarise:

Given the strengths of whisky and beer, assuming you don't drink mixers, or mix your drinks, 1 pint of whisky will get you as intoxicated as 8 pints of beer.

However: Given the large quantity of alcohol in 1 pint of spirits, and that, once it is in your stomach, it is difficult to voluntarily get it out, if alcohol poisoning develops, it could be very dangerous, and hence drinking a pint (or any other large quantity) of spirits can be fatal and should not be encouraged!

Answer 3

8 pints of beer will have the same amount of alcohol as 1 pt of whisky - if you can drink that much

Answer 4

That is 40% by volume. One pint of beer is about the same as 1.5 oz shot of the hard stuff.

Answer 5

negative the bottle is for a mix more than likely, the 40% is from straight whiskey.
heres the gist of it
1 1/2 oz of whiskey
4 oz of wine
12 oz beer all have the same amount of alcohol really

Answer 6

Never put anything in Whisky except more Whisky.

Answer 7

1 bear is 5% of alcohol, but it is 16OZ. You drink 0.8 OZ of Alcohol

1 shot of whiskey is 40% of alcohol, but is 2 OZ so you drink 0.8 OZ of Alcohol.

In this case, 1 pint and a 2OZ shot have the same amount of alcohol.

Answer 8

Not the same

Answer 9

me too leave me alone i am go in for a Ly down in a dark room with a ***

Answer 10

No, not quite. Measures etc are explained on this site http://www.projects.ex.ac.uk/trol/dictunit/notes6.htm#countrystandards