I think you received the answer from many persons, and it is NO.
But I wonder why some people have nothing to do but ask stupid questions that show their sex oriented way of thinking rather than try find some real information about a religion??
If you are interested in knowing about a religion, you can read or ask serious questions, otherwise you should just leave religions alone and take care of your life only
2006-07-30 01:12:23
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answer #1
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answered by Ayman 2
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First you should learn Islam, and their religious laws, which a real Islamic person follows; then ask the question; I am sure you don't have a question after you learn about Islam, "The Holy Qura'n" says all about how a muslim lives in the world;
It is the best way to find answer from those kind of questions. When good peoples see this question; you know what they think about the questioner, guess what?
Ask good questions and expect good answer otherwise you are the ---------- person in the world.
2006-07-31 20:44:25
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answer #2
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answered by R<>H 2
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In Islam, women are possessions, and that they are able to't think of a female with out an proprietor, with a view to shield extra women, Islam enables adult males to have as much as 4 better halves. Theoretically, the guy is meant to be waiting to help all his better halves the two, and he's meant to get his formerly better halves' settlement till now marrying yet another one, and an formerly spouse can ask for a divorce if she's no longer happy that her husband is marrying yet another female. In prepare, because women would desire to ask for divorce (in contrast to adult males, who merely tell their better halves they are divorced), because women are instructed to be obedient, and because older women hardly have everywhere to pass in the event that they walk faraway from their marriages, formerly better halves do no longer probably have the fashion of say that an mind-blowing form of Muslims declare they do.
2016-10-01 06:22:34
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answer #3
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answered by riobe 4
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Officially, he cannot have more wives than he can have sex with in one day. That does not have to be at the same time, nor do
I think it is usual or adviseable.
2006-07-30 00:50:56
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answer #4
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answered by Gungnir 5
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Question :
Is it permissible for a man married to two or more woman to engagane sexual encounters with his wives all at once?
Meaning : can he have sex with one wife and have the second wife join, even if they can't see each other?.
Answer :
Praise be to Allaah.
Having intercourse with one wife in the presence of the other and where she can see is something concerning which there should be no dispute that it is haraam.
1 – al-Hasan al-Basri said: They – meaning the Sahaabah and senior Taabi’een – used to regard wajs as makrooh, which means having intercourse with one when the other can hear the sounds. The word “makrooh” according to the earlier scholars means that it is haraam.
Narrated by Ibn Abi Shaybah in al-Musannaf, 4/388
2 – Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If two wives agree to live together in one house, that is permissible, because they each have the right to their own house, but they may give up that right. Similarly they may agree to let him sleep between them in one bed. But if they agree to let him have intercourse with one of them when the other one is looking, that is not permissible, because it is vile and despicable and is not appropriate, and it does not become permissible even if they agree to it.
al-Mughni, 8/137
3 – al-Hajaawi the author of Zaad al-Mustanqi’ said: It is makrooh to have intercourse where anyone can see.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen commented on these words by saying:
It is very strange that he limited himself to describing it as makrooh. This covers two issues. The first is having intercourse where the awrahs of both partners can be seen. Undoubtedly limiting oneself to saying that this is makrooh is a mistake, because it is obligatory to cover the ‘awrah. If it is in a place where anyone can see their ‘awrahs, this is undoubtedly haraam, and what this author says is not correct at all.
The second is having intercourse in a place where the ‘awrah cannot be seen. Limiting oneself to saying that this is makrooh is also subject to further discussion. For example, if they are covered with a blanket and he starts to have intercourse with her, and the movements can be seen. This is undoubtedly more likely to be haraam, because it is not appropriate for a Muslim to lower himself to such a level.
This may also provoke desire in the person who sees this, and that may lead to evil consequences.
The correct view concerning this matter is that it is haraam to have intercourse with a woman in view of anyone, unless the onlooker is a child who does not understand what is happening; in this case it does not matter. But if the child understands what is happening then intercourse should not take place where he can see, even if he is a child, because a child may speak about what he has seen unintentionally.
Sharh Kitaab al-Nikaah min Zaad al-Mustanqi’, tape 17.
And Allaah knows best.
2006-07-30 01:04:06
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answer #5
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answered by Umm Ali 6
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ORGY ? Muslims? Man you really have made a fool out of the religion !!!!!
Great Imagination !!!!
LOL
2006-07-30 00:56:46
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Stop acting stupid, change your racist ways, educate yourself, think outside of the box which Christians piss in, and grow up.
You pathetic excuse of being on here.
Why do they allow you people to even log on.
If only i was given your IP address.
{{ grins }}
2006-07-30 00:52:32
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Thinking about to become a Muslim? :-)
2006-07-30 00:51:53
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answer #8
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answered by Chri R 4
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Of course not..it's forbidden to do so..every act has to be private, in a separate space also...
2006-07-30 00:50:28
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answer #9
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answered by Hisham 2
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Can you grow up?? stop asking these immature questions...is this an example of your mentality
2006-07-30 01:48:25
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answer #10
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answered by ? 5
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