Answer these three hard scripture verses:?

Question

Now I rejoice in what was surffered for you and I fill up in my flesh what is still lacking in regard to Christ's suffering. (1Col 1:24) Exactly what is lacking in Christ's suffering that we can fill up in our flesh?

When Paul says women will be saved through childbearing (1Tim2:15). I know we are to look at the second part of the verse, "if they continue in faith, love and holiness," But aren't we saved by faith alone? Surely Paul should have chosen his words more carefully.

Now then if these is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? (1Cor 15:29) Paul was using the baptisim of the dead as a proof of our resurrection. What was the baptism of the dead? And doesn't that mean we can intercede for the dead?

Answer 1

1cor.15:29
Some among the Corinthians were claiming that there is no resurrection from the dead. As part of his response, Paul asks, "Otherwise, what will they do who are baptized for the dead, if the dead do not rise at all? Why then are they baptized for the dead?" (1 Corinthians 15:29).

Expositors have offered numerous interpretations of the unusual words "baptized for the dead." Some have argued that this phrase could be translated "baptized in view of the dead," which would roughly coincide with the baptismal portrait of the burial of the spiritually dead "old man" and the raising to life of the "new man in Christ." Others claim that the strange expression refers to new members being baptized to replace members who have died. However, these explanations lack solid textual support.

The most likely interpretation is that some among the Corinthian heretics were being baptized on behalf of deceased loved ones who had not received baptism during their lifetimes. Paul does not condone the practice; he merely notes the fact that some were doing it. His point is that if they do not believe in the resurrection of the dead, then it makes no sense for some of their number to practice baptism for the dead.

1tim2:15
James wrote, "Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect? And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, 'Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him as righteousness.' And he was called the friend of God. You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only" (James 2:2124).

Yet, the apostle Paul said, "For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. For what does the Scripture say? 'Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness'" (Romans 4:2,3).

Notice that Paul and James quoted the very same scripture to support their arguments, which, at first glance, seem to be contradictory.

James wrote only the one epistle, but Paul wrote several, and was consistent in his teaching that justification comes by way of faith alone. He insisted that "God reckons righteousness apart from works" (verse 6), and stated unequivocally, "For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast" (Ephesians 2:8,9). He sharply rebuked certain false teachers among the Galatians for teaching that justification comes through a means other than faith.

The solution to the seeming conflict between Paul and James lies in understanding the meaning of justification, and the way both writers used this term.

When Paul spoke of being justified by faith alone, he used the term to denote one's legal standing before God. In other words, to be "justified" is to be forgiven of sins and declared righteous before God. No quantity of good works can produce this state of justification. It is granted to sinners, not on the condition that they first produce an impressive record of righteous deeds, but on the basis of faith alone! That's what Paul meant when he said that Abraham's belief (faith) was counted as righteousness.

However, the term justification is not restricted to one narrow definition or nuance of meaning. Not only can the term mean "to be made righteous," it can also mean "to show to be righteous, or just." James had this meaning in mind when he wrote of justification.

James wrote, "What does it profit, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but does not have works? Can faith save him?" (James 2:14).

The answer is obvious: No, a faith that produces no works is not saving faith. James's point was that if faith is genuineif it's the kind of faith through which a person is savedthen it will produce evidence of its existence. He didn't mean that a person can be made right with God only after he has performed sufficient works. He meant that if a person has been made righteous before Godnot on the basis of his own merits, but by grace through genuine faiththen his faith will be reflected in his behavior.

Paul spoke of the faith that God sees, while James spoke of the faith that man sees. God knows whether we have real faithsaving faithfor He looks upon the heart. But man cannot look upon the heart; therefore, the only way men can "see" faith is by the works it produces.

James continued, "If a brother or sister is naked and destitute of daily food, and one of you says to them, 'Depart in peace, be warmed and filled,' but you do not give them the things which are needed for the body, what does it profit? Thus also faith, if it does not have works, is dead" (2:1517).

James meant simply that if faith produces no works, then it's not faith at allthat is, it's not the kind of faith that pleases God. Merely saying that one has faith is not evidence of real faith, for real faith manifests itself in the way a person conducts his life.

Continue: "But someone will say, 'You have faith, and I have works.' Show me your faith without your works, and I will show you my faith by my works" (verse 18).

Notice that James was speaking of what men are able to see. Men, unlike God, can see faith only by the works it produces.

James pointed out that there is a belief that produces no works, no positive response to God, and that such belief is of little value. He wrote, "You believe that there is one God. You do well. Even the demons believeand tremble! But do you want to know, O foolish man, that faith without works is dead?" (verses 19,20).

Belief in the existence of God is a good belief, but such belief is not necessarily evidence of true faith. It may be a form of faith, but if it produces no works, it is uselessit's not the kind of faith that saves. James pointed out that even the demons "believe," but their belief is not the kind of belief that results in good works or a change in behavior.

To make his point clear, James illustrated the nature of true faith by pointing to the action producing faith of Abraham.

"Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect? And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, 'Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.' And he was called the friend of God. You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only" (verses 2124).

For James, "faith only" meant fruitless faith, or faith that produces nothing, and "works" were inseparable from the trusting spirit (faith) that motivates them.

James was not saying that Abraham achieved righteousness by his works; he was saying that Abraham was shown to be righteous by his works. In other words, evidence of real faith was seen in Abraham's obedience to God. Had Abraham refused to obey God's command to offer Isaac, then we may well conclude that Abraham's faith was not the faith that is reckoned as righteousness.

His "faith was working together with his works"that is, his faith was producing works. The internal quality of faith was made evident by the things Abraham did.

James said that "by works faith was made perfect." The Greek word translated "made perfect" is teleioo, which means "to bring to an end by completing or perfecting," and is used "of accomplishing" and "of bringing to completeness" (W.E. Vine, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, p. 846). Christ said that His "power is made perfect [teleioo] in weakness," which means that His power is shown most perfectly when human weakness is present (see 2 Corinthians 12:9).

Abraham's faith was shown most perfectly, or made clearly evident, by the works it produced. His works were the end result, the accomplishment, of his faith.

James said that "the Scripture was fulfilled," and then quoted Genesis 15:6, the very same verse Paul quoted in showing that justification is granted through faith alone. By reading Genesis 15 and subsequent chapters, you will notice that Abraham's belief (faith) was "accounted to him for righteousness" years before he was called upon to offer Isaac! James obviously meant that the faith God had seen in Abraham's heart many years earlier was demonstrated in Abraham's obedience. Again, his obedience was the end-result, or accomplishment, of his faith.

James then cited another example of faith. He wrote, "Likewise, was not Rahab the harlot also justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out another way?" (verse 25).

Rahab believed that God was with the people of Israel, that Israel's God was the true God, and she acted according to her belief. Again, faith (belief) produced action (works). Thus, the record of Rahab's worksher act of receiving the messengers and of sending them out another wayshows us that Rahab had a real belief in God and in the promises He had made to Israel. Rahab was "justified" in that she was shown to be right, or to have a right attitude and perspective, by the things she did. Her outward actions demonstrated her inward faith.

James went on to explain, "For just as the body without the spirit [breath, or life principle] is dead, so also faith without works is dead." In other words, if faith does not produce works, it is not the kind of faith that pleases Godit is dead, useless.

By no means did James say that one can achieve a right standing before God by doing good works. He said that faith, if it is the kind of faith that pleases God, will produce works, thus making its presence evident to those of us who, unlike God, cannot look into a person's heart.

That's precisely what Paul said in Ephesians 2:810: "For by grace you have been saved [justified: forgiven, declared righteous] through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast. For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them."

Good works cannot produce salvation, but they always accompany salvation.

Clearly, there is no disagreement between James's and Paul's teachings on faith, works, and justification. It's simply a matter of understanding what each meant when using these terms

1col1:24
self explanatory if one reads it as it is wrote
Col 1:24 Who now rejoice in my sufferings for you, and fill up that which is behind of the afflictions of Christ in my flesh for his body's sake, which is the church:
Col 1:25 Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;
Col 1:26 Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:
Col 1:27 To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:
Col 1:28 Whom we preach, warning every man, and teaching every man in all wisdom; that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus:
Col 1:29 Whereunto I also labour, striving according to his working, which worketh in me mightily.

Answer 2

1. Paul while thanking God that he is worthy enough to suffer for Jesus' sake is also "filling up" on the sufferings of Jesus. I think it's helping him through his suffering to know that Jesus suffered for us. (Colossians is the book not 1 Col. but good effort)
2. Back then women did not have "equal rights" For a women to speak up was unheard of. And If a woman is married to a godly man she still should take a backseat to her husbands viewpoints. Not that she should be a doormat, but more marraiges could be saved if the husband had a little more respect , especially in front of his peers. Womens work is in the home!!! (and I am a woman)
3. Go back up a few verses well to the begining of the chapter. Paul is talking to a group of people in this group were some people who did not believe in the resurection of the dead. Paul was making a point about Jesus resurection. Although I have never heard about anyone being baptized for the dead it must have been a practice back then. Ecclesiastes 9:5 &6 tells us that the dead know not anything neither have they any more reward for even the memories of them are forgotten...

Answer 3

A lot of question there!
1. "Christ suffered for us leaving us an example that we should follow in His steps." (Peter) All suffering in not over yet, the church still is suffering, read about it in Romans 8. Paul suffered very much and was assuring the church that he was will ing to suffer for them as Christ also was.

2. They are saved through child bearing, not saved from hell to eternal life.

3. It would take some time to explain this but it has to do with the definition of the word Baptize and the way it is translated into English. The word baptize is a transliteration of the Greek and not a translation of it. What baptize means is a burying with a view to Resurrection. If I were to put this question into contemporary words it would read, "Why do we bury dead people? The answer from the whole context of the teaching of this passage is because of the coming resurrection. Sorry not a lot of space and time to explain the details of this.

Answer 4

1. Can't find the first scripture to answer number one for ya.

2. No. It takes more than faith. You just read it yourself in the scripture. Read it again. It'll pop in there.

3. You changed wording. Paul does not sanctify baptizing the dead.
He does support the resurrection doctrine, and that one should be baptized.
He's asking, what use was it for those that are dead to be baptized, if there is no resurrection. See it?
Not so hard when you slow down an just--------dang it, just lost the line of thought I was writing to you. Just-----just something-----just whatever I guess. Sorry about this Guy, well, I hope some of this helps. . . Joe

Answer 5

1Cor1:24 Paul is identifying with Christ not taking His place.
1Tim2:15 this is salvation of their bodies not their spiritual salvation..
1Cor15:29 Paul used every example no matter how extreme to show that there will be a literal resurrection. This was always A huge point with Paul, being a Pharisee and having this save argument with the Sadducees all the time. Kinda like me and Mormonism...

Answer 6

1. Paul's death, not Messiah's death.

2. Eve was promised that salvation would come through the Savior being born. Eventually.

3. He was commenting how futile the baptism of the dead is.

Answer 7

1.-what was lacking in 'Paul-not Christ.

2.-Women will be saved through a woman "bearing Christ".

3.- no one knows what this passage about the dead means-no one, and that includes you.

English is not your native language is it. I have noticed before that you completely misunderstand Bible passages.

Answer 8

1) paul is reffering to the church and his suffering in his body that he was enduring for their sake...

2) i think paul was reffering to a womans credibility being greater after she has children... even if that wasnt what his thoughts were your point doesnt make sense because you said it ...if they continue in faith love and holiness.

3) the dead are all men ... those that are babtized with the Holy Spirit as evangelists to bring the word of God to men to save them ... in other words paul is saying why am I babtized with the Holy Spirit and endure hardship for
(dead) men if there is no God or afterlife or if none of this is true.

that satisfy your desire for an explanation?

Answer 9

1. Jesus was enough to redeem us from our sins, but we need to suffer a little bit in this old world to grow more like Him.

2. Actually quite similar to 1 women need to not believe they are "all that" so much. They learn obedience through what they suffer. so to speak.

3. Sounds like.

Answer 10

1. Purple

2. Monkey

3. Dishwasher

Answer 11

advise you study "fact in Translation" by Dr. BeDuhn. Even Vine's Bible Dictionary states: "The literal translation, 'a god became the be conscious' is deceptive." Please comprehend that's merely deceptive if like Vine you have self assurance interior the trinity. Your occasion of ""Harry talked approximately as the dogs" does not represent the sentence of John a million:1c. "Snoopy became dogs" is erroneous in English (as in line with maximum bibles at John a million:1c), through fact suitable suited English demands: "Snoopy became a dogs." or in Greek be conscious order: "a dogs became Snoopy". Context of John a million:18 denotes God the father. Context of John a million:a million tells us that the be conscious is with God. If Fred is with John, John can't be Fred, no remember the form you opt to curl the sentence. study the footnote of John a million:1c interior the NAB. It exhibits that God(2) isn't an identity yet a high quality. John isn't figuring out Jesus (the be conscious) as God, yet that the be conscious has the traits of God whom he's with. truly i've got chanced on the NWT to be greater straightforward and precise of all different translations. and that i've got accomplished my very own examine. .