2006-07-28 08:16:50 · 20 answers · asked by man_id_unknown 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Since there are several kinds of love, of course they can.
What they cannot have is access to Christ's love. That they must want, then ask for, then they will receive it. But if they don't want Christ, why would they want His love? And so, they receive it not.
How sad.
2006-07-28 08:20:46 · answer #1 · answered by Granny Annie 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Anyone who perceives people as being for and against christ knows not christ's love and, therefore, all who think in terms of self versus other, lovers of christ and haters of christ, etc. can never experience christ's love. Christ's love is unconditional, non-dualistic, and completely foreign to our concepts of special love.
2006-07-28 15:20:21 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Anyone is capable of love. But your question goes deeper; "againts Christ," should be more like against believing on anyone or anything that you should be accountable to. Everyone eventually gets to believe on God/Chist sooner or later especially in a near death experience, why delay that which is inevitable and you'll live happier.
2006-07-28 15:23:45 · answer #3 · answered by Phil and Sue O 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Everyone has to learn to reject evil and choose good. Those against Christ today are not necessarily against Him tomorrow. It is best to give everyone a chance to grow up and be someone great.
http://www.mechanicsburgnewchurch.org
2006-07-28 15:20:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Our ability to love comes from God, and Christ's, love for us. Through this love, we gain our ability to love.
If we reject the father, the father still does not reject us. So even those against Christ may love, as they are loved regardless of how they express their gift of free will.
Even the self-avowed pagan commie who you offended can love, because Christ loves her even though she is a pagan commie heathen.
2006-07-28 15:27:57 · answer #5 · answered by Green Machine 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your question is based on a fallacy called the 'undistributed term.' 'Love' does not necessary always and in all things equal all the associations with it in the English language. There are many subalterns of the term 'love.' Therefore your question is meaningless.
2006-07-28 15:20:42 · answer #6 · answered by wehwalt 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, and it sometimes appears those who speak for Christ (wrongly, I might add) have no love
2006-07-28 15:20:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Read their posts.
Rev 18-22
2006-07-28 15:19:45 · answer #8 · answered by robert p 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. Think for yourself for a change because you've been brain washed.
2006-07-28 15:20:44 · answer #9 · answered by Melarro 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am a heathen, (Pagan) and I DEFINETLY feel love. I have to admit that this is actually mildly offensive to me.
2006-07-28 15:19:33 · answer #10 · answered by Phoenix's Mommy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋