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The literal words are not changed by any context.
Paul is not Jesus.What Paul later said is irrelevant.
Using the Christian's assertion that these words are literally infallible, the only "reasonable" explanation is that Jesus meant EXACTLY what he is purported to have said.

Golly, looks like Jesus want nothing to do with christians--or any other non-Jew. THATS WHAT HE SAID.

2006-07-28 05:53:35 · 25 answers · asked by professor.norcal@sbcglobal.net 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

25 answers

This is one of those places you have to interpret. When you are telling someone they can't f*ck another consenting adult in the a**, THEN the Bible is 110% LITERAL. When something inconveniences YOU, it needs interpretation, or is a parable. See how it works yet?

2006-07-28 05:58:58 · answer #1 · answered by ? 4 · 0 3

Jesus came to the Jews first. The Gentiles being added to Israel fulfills several Old Testament prophecies: Psalm 18:49, Deut. 32:43, Psalm 117:1, Isa. 11:1,10:

2006-07-28 07:22:29 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Mat_15:24
But he answered and said, I am not sent ... - This answer was made to the woman, not to the disciples.
The “lost sheep of the house of Israel” were the Jews. He came first to them. He came as their expected Messiah. He came to preach the gospel himself to the Jews only. Afterward it was preached to the Gentiles, but the ministry of Jesus was confined almost entirely to the Jews.

Uh, by the way, there were no Christians at the time that Christ lived, they came after He arose from the dead.

2006-07-28 06:01:19 · answer #3 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 0 0

Jesus did answer, He taught the disciples his be conscious. learn Acts 11;18 if your no longer of the jewish blood line you're a Gentile. study Isaiah 40:a million via 6 chp a million is Jesus chpt 2 Jesus for 30 years chpt 3 is us....Christians chpt 4 is the two/nd creation chpt 5 power for Jesus to do this chpt 6 For Israel and Gentiles (jews and something of the international) to be stored.

2016-10-01 04:42:54 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The text of Matthew was originally in Aramic. It is my understanding a more accurate translation is "I was sent FOR the lost sheep of Israel", which does not necessarily exclude that others from benefitting by his coming. The many translations over many years can sometimes distort the message, and that is why it is important to keep in context the entire message and not one single verse.

One of the Ten Commandments stated "THOU SHALT NOT KILL" and yet David 'slew' Goliath, and Moses closed the Red Sea on his pursuers, both supposedly with the grace and strength of God. You can find conflicts all over the Bible if you piecemeal it verse by verse.

2006-07-28 06:05:38 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus was sent first and foremost to the nation of Israel because at that time they were God's chosen people. Some Jews did accept Jesus as the Messiah but as a whole the nation rejected him. By doing that, the Jewish nation was now rejected as God's people because they had rejected God's means of saving all people, not just Jews. The bible shows that God loves all people and wants all of us to attain everlasting life. This includes Jews and non Jews.

2006-07-28 05:59:08 · answer #6 · answered by Daniel L 2 · 0 1

I prefer the King James Version, which says "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel", which I understand to mean "I am not sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." But, I also believe the "lost sheep" he is refering to is not the jews.

John 10:16 says "And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd."

So, there is more than one flock. The jews, and these others that the Bible doesn't give a lot of details on.

And if the statement does mean "I was ONLY sent", then it just means he was only sent there for the time being. Nothing says he couldn't or wouldn't be sent to anyone else, later.

I mean, think about it. Your mother can send you to the store for a gallon of milk. That day, you were ONLY sent for milk. But tomorrow, she could send you for butter.

2006-07-28 06:29:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Do I misunderstand - I am reading your name as a professor at Northridge Cal State? Since I can not read it any other way, but how I see it, I will say, a professor is very apt to know three things about this:

1. The Gospels were written in an era when it was the style to write anonymously, but in the name of someone else. Hence, the Gospels of Luke or Matthew or Mark or John were not written by them. The authors used their names. This was common practice at that point of history. Scholars speak of this in their books. Since the four Synoptic Gospels are in basic agreement -that is a strong point for them. But to take it all as absolutely literally so - I would, myself, have a "lighter hold on it."

2. Jesus was a Jew schooled in the Talmudic teachings. Scholars do say, everything He taught in His earthly life was taken from the Talmud, itself. He simply changed the wording of the concepts into a more definitive delivery that would have some "thrust" into the people's hearts. He made clear - through Talmudic teachings- the most elevated thinking contained in its contents. He worded what He taught for maximal impact. What He spoke can be found within the text of the Talmud - said a little differently, but still obvious. The Holy Spirit was His inspiration in what to teach and how to say it.

3. As a Jew, in His human life, and living amongst, primarily, other Jews and following the oral traditions of the Old Testament, (in that Jews were chosen to carry the messages of God) yet, in His era it was law that it was unclean for a Jew, (according to their own laws laid down by the Priests) to even speak to a Pagan, or to associate with them. This is because their belief in a singular God went against the beliefs of the entire other world and they were protecting themselves from harrassment and scorn and harm due to their beliefs. Jesus' ministry, during his Life in the Flesh, was strictly to the Jews. The concept of taking everything to the outer world was later - at the directions of the Holy Spirit in Him; for after His Ascension Jesus Himself was placed in charge of the Sonship in partnership with the Holy Spirit. He then led Paul to go forth into the World. But first, the Jewish people needed to be dealt with - for God, according to the traditions, had made them the Chosen Ones. They failed in that particular mission due to protecting themselve from the Pagan world. It was rectified by Jesus through the Holy Spirit, later.

I know your question was intellectual - not meant to be hate toward Jews. We do not want to mock our Father, nor His Plan, nor His Son given unto this world as it's Teacher. I hope I have been of some help to you in answering what you have asked.

2006-07-28 07:11:43 · answer #8 · answered by Lana S (1) 4 · 0 0

Jesus talks in parables which are metaphors that are under tight rules of interpretation. Jesus meant for His parables to be interpreted into the internal sense.

In the Word (or Bible) "Israel" signifies those of the church.

http://www.mechanicsburgnewchurch.org

2006-07-28 05:58:44 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

He was sent to the house if Israel, but he will sent the disciples to all nations. Jesus started with the house of Israel. Jesus also tested her faith, she past. Read verse 28.

2006-07-28 06:01:39 · answer #10 · answered by LP S 6 · 0 0

I am sure it says firstly he sent paul out to the gentiles and even told peter to eat with gentiles an unthinkable thing to strict Jews

2006-07-28 05:58:34 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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