English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Okay, am confused, Jesus was born to a virgin, I get that, Jesus can't be born to sinners and Mary wasn't a sinner, and neither was her mother, but what about her mother's mother? And after that? Jesus can't be born to sinners, right? Were all her ancestors virgins or something? O_o How is that possible?
So eventually, Jesus was born to sinners then, if the sin of a parent passes down to their child, was Jesus a sinner?
Pardon me, I'm just confused after talking to an atheist, I was really agnostic about all this, but this really caught my attention can someone clear this up for me? Can God's son be a sinner? Technically, he is, since all of Mary's ancestors obviously got it on at some point and thus led to mary, but how is this possible?

2006-07-28 05:01:20 · 24 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

How can bloodlines have an impact on heavenly allmighty entities? I am not trying to pick out any holes, I am merely asking this to clear up my doubts, please don't think I'm trying to condemn or something. I am neither christian nor an atheist.

2006-07-28 05:41:07 · update #1

24 answers

i think we should solve the problem of whether he was married or not first...then we can talk about him being a sinner or not

2006-07-28 21:37:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

If you just consider what the Bible says then you don't have to be so confused. The Bible does say that Mary was a virgin, but never claims that Mary was a special case of human. If Mary had to be born of a virgin and sinless then so would her mother and grandmother and great grandmother all the way back to Eve. Eve would have has to had a daughter before she sinned in order for this work out and all of them would have had to be conceived by the Holy Ghost. Don't you think the Bible would allude to this special line of sinless humans or that there would be some historical record? Another theory that is held to by protestants is that the sin nature of man is passed on by the father from Adam to Seth .... Noah. The fact that Jesus had God has his real Father (not Joseph) means that Jesus did not inherent the fallen nature of man man that Adam brought on us all. So this is why it was important that Mary was a virgin, not a sinless human, in order for Jesus to be able to be sinless at birth.

2006-07-28 12:20:20 · answer #2 · answered by mattwbell 2 · 0 0

Why do you say that Jesus cannot be born to a sinner? Everybody except for Jesus has sinned so it would not be possible for him to be born to a person who hasn't sinned. Just because she was a virgin doesn't mean she wasn't a sinner. And why do you say the sin of a parent passes down to their child. Each person is responsible for their own sins and not the sins of anybody else be it there parents, siblings or best friends. I wonder where you got all of these thoughts from. Hope it helped.

2006-07-28 12:17:36 · answer #3 · answered by babygemini261 3 · 0 0

Jesus was the only man who was born with out any sin! His Mather didn't gave a birth by the human sexual desire. He is born from the verging by the work of Holy Sprite, and not when the man and woman sleep together as the nature. That is why we said that his is born with out any sin. Any one, who is born by sexual desire is sinner as the sin transfers from humann to huma by blood when a man sleeps with a woman, but he was born when the word dwells in here and that was absolutely Holy Sprite's work, alright!! and he also lived on the earth with out any sin unlike Humans. He was feeling Hungry, pain, angers but he did not commit ed sin!!

There is no bible contradictions. For the thing is seems contradictory there is an answer which shows it is not. As a matter of fact, It is a book that is written at different time, place and by different people still makes an agreement between each of the book and that is what we appreciate. Try to read it with open and clean mind and that will save your soul!

God bless you,
my email is rufaelh@yahoo.com

2006-07-28 12:17:55 · answer #4 · answered by mille 1 · 0 0

There are two kinds of doctrines- Biblical, and man-made.

Mary's lack of sin is an example of the latter. The Bible does not make any special claims about her purity, and does not suggest that Jesus, even with God as His father, NEEDS to have been born through anyone special.

In fact, the history of the Bible is that of God using 'questionable' people as his vessels.

The problem is when you make some sort of 'official church statement'- like Jesus had to have been born specially- then have to literally create doctrines to justify it. Believe me, the Catholics are not the only ones to do this!

This also touches on the related doctrines (also man-made) of 'original sin' and 'inherited sin'. Is man somehow born as a sinner? If not, then what difference does it make WHO Jesus' mom was?

Besides, even within the doctrines of the Catholic Church, it would have been easy for God to have touched Mary at some point (possibly when the angels appeared?) and cleansed her of sin.




It is my firm opinion that when things get THIS confusing, and one is tempted to say 'its a mystery', then one has gotten tangled up in man's doctrines and needs to start over simpler!

2006-07-28 13:01:59 · answer #5 · answered by Madkins007 7 · 0 0

God blessed Mary as someone who did not sin. She gave birth to Jesus. And sins of parents DONT get passed down, even so, when God blessed Mary, they would've gone away. Mary's mother was obviously not a virgin and probably a sinner like us, but that has nothing to do with it. Hope i cleared things up : /

2006-07-28 12:10:56 · answer #6 · answered by hey there :) 2 · 0 0

Mary was a human being, a sinner.... Jesus was God's Son, capible of sin via temptation- But He was sinless

Jesus got His human form from mary and His sinlessness from God...

If Jesus was a sinner than there are a lot of folks going to hell- in fact everyone would go...

Jesus had to be sinless in order to pay for our sins...

And He was sinless, without Jesus there is no hope of salvation...

2006-07-28 12:10:01 · answer #7 · answered by Mr. Agappae 5 · 0 0

The Church teaching is that Mary was rendered sinless by a special grace from God because she was to be the Mother of God. She and only she was graced this way; none of her family was.

I know that when you try to follow the logic of this, it at first doesn't make sense.

It's like this: Mary was to be the mother of God. You have to understand the consequences of this. Think about God's power, His awesome glory. Remember the story of Moses getting the Ten Commandments from God? He was not even able to look at God because he would've died. No human can survive in the presence of God. He's that powerful. It is our sin that makes us weak, and unable to survive in the presence of His power.

This is why Mary was preserved from sin, because she had to be able to carry the power of Divinity in her womb. She was the Ark of the Covenent.

Mary, however, was not divine. Therefore, her mother before her did not need to be graced. Mary was just human, she wasn't God. See the difference?

Even though she was sinless, she was not divine. Jesus, however, is divine. He is God.

Look of the account of St. Bernedette of Lourdes, France. Her story records her seeing the Blessed Virgin, and being given the teaching of the Immaculant Conception.

Hope this helps, God bless.

2006-07-28 12:18:18 · answer #8 · answered by Danny H 6 · 0 0

Because He was conceived of the Holy Ghost.

Matthew 1: 20 "But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost."



Hebrews 4:14-16
14"Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession.

15For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

16Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need."

2006-07-28 12:35:33 · answer #9 · answered by Michael C 3 · 0 0

when did YOU decide that Jesus "can't be born to sinners"? WHO said that it was not possible? Man? Remember, "lean not unto your own understanding" as the bible says. Jesus was a sinless man, yes he was a human, made in the likeness of God, His father. I will pray for your salvation.
Love you

2006-07-28 12:15:53 · answer #10 · answered by planetjanetjesus 2 · 0 0

" The Holy Spirit fell upon Mary". That act cleansed Mary from sin and unrighteousness... You may be thinking in a distressed fashion. Slow down and measure your steps.. Solid study would give you a clearer picture.

2006-07-28 12:07:13 · answer #11 · answered by cowboymanhrsetrnr 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers