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18No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known.

Seems like rubbish to me.....

Is this trinity babble?

Please interpret.

2006-07-28 03:58:44 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

22 answers

In this scripture Jesus is called god, but some bible versions use the term, "a god". This scripture is showing that Moses nor anyone else ever see God except for God's son, Jesus at the time of Jesus's pre-human existence in heaven. It goes on to say that Jesus is favored by his father.

There are many in Christendom who use scriptures to try to prove the doctrine of the trinity, but you can notice that in this case and in many other scriptures that only 2 parts of the trinity are mentioned. While the trinity doctrine is a mystery, the logic of the bible is clear. If something doesn't seem logical in the bible, its good to find out the reason for it even if it means going back in history to where these mysteries like the trinity began.

2006-07-28 04:25:26 · answer #1 · answered by quaver 4 · 1 0

It is disheartening to note that the attempt to clarify by presenting a logical analysis of God (trinity) has complicated matters. I am inclined to think that there is a typographical error in your "but God the One and Only". This is the verse in my King James version: John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. I would like to offer as an explanation verses John 1:1 to 1:4. I think they have the same meaning.

2006-07-28 04:21:07 · answer #2 · answered by PabloSolutin 4 · 0 0

I think if looking at a verse it is always better to look at the verses around it.
This passage clearly means that while G-d gave Moses the law, But Jesus was with G-d from the beginning and knows him.
Remember what this chapter is about? The word was with G-d in the beginning?

17 For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, F6 who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.

I see no mention of the trinity here or of the Holy Spirit.

2006-07-28 04:08:27 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

God is real, and has been making Himself knew to every race and culture throughout history. That is why there are so many religions, and so many thing similar in them. There is a real truth they are all based on.

But nobody to date has been able to get it completely right. God is just too big, too complex and too marvelous for use to understand. That is what John is saying in 1:18 -- No one has ever fully seen or preceived or understood God. (That is the full meaning of the original Greek word translated "seen" in the version you quoted. It means seen - and more.)

Since God wants to be seen and known, He did the only thing he could, He came as a man, conceived by God the Father, in order to make Himself known. His name is Jesus Christ.

And - yes - this is that trinity babble. Its all over the Bible.

2006-07-28 04:02:35 · answer #4 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 0

Apparently, you dont believe in the trinity, but it is trinity bable as you call it. God is 3 beings, God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit. They make God. All 3 are one God. Its like if You took the Holy Spirit out of it then you would have only GO_. Man has seen the Son part of God, but not the trinity together or the Father Himself or the Holy Spirit Himself. The bible says these three are one God. They arent seperate Gods but 3 being under one title. When Jesus was baptized, the father spoke from heaven and the Holy Spirit came down as a dove. In Gen 1:26 "And God said, Let US make man in OUR image, after OUR likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. These are 3 references that prove there are 3 different being but one title for all 3. In this verse, Jesus is declaring God the Father and that He is the only one thats seen Him. Wll now that ive thourghly confussed you. i will bid you ado.

2006-07-28 04:50:01 · answer #5 · answered by Airman_P 2 · 0 0

The New International Version might help:

No one has ever seen God, but the one and only [Son], who is himself God and [a] is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.

...the KJV that you quoted is in arcane language that confuses a modern English reader; it's saying that God is made known...not through seeing, but through the Son's (Jesus') incarnation as a human being. You ask about the trinity...this is not an example of the trinity. But, that is another discussion entirely...ask and it shall be given...:)

2006-07-28 04:10:13 · answer #6 · answered by Rev Debi Brady 5 · 0 0

John the baptist was declaring Jesus to be the "prophet" people were looking for. Up until that point, people thought John was that prophet. But John said that Jesus was "better" because He was First, and that Jesus who was "in God's bossom or by His side" was the only physically seen evidence of God. It is of the Trinity and is not babble.

2006-07-28 04:07:01 · answer #7 · answered by orion_1812@yahoo.com 6 · 0 0

God communicated through various people in the new testament, usually prohets who were told to give specific messages. But no one ever saw God"God theOne and Only" is a title showing Jesus is both God and the Fathers Unique Son, in Christ. God revealed his nature and essence in a way that could be seen and touched In Christ, God became a man who lived on earth. Remember this Jesus is coming are you going?

2006-07-28 04:12:05 · answer #8 · answered by ~Aqua.. 4 · 0 0

Since the Holy Spirit is not explicitly mentioned then this is not a matter of the Trinity. It is more properly evidence of a doctrine called the "hypostatic union of Christ." The hypostatic union of Christ means that perfectly functioning divine and human natures united in the person of Jesus Christ. John teaches this in the first chapter of his gospel account to a readership who is thinking in classical Greek philosophical terms.

2006-07-28 04:07:22 · answer #9 · answered by chdoctor 5 · 0 0

John 1: 18 is very clear: ...."The Only and Unique Son or the Only Begotten God had DECLARED HIM, that is God the Father, who had not been seen, in the Person of Jesus Christ, who is Son of God! Who then is this Begotten God that is in the bosom of the Father? He is the Son and Lord at the Right Hand of God(Luke 22:69 & Psalm 110:1).

2015-06-12 03:50:03 · answer #10 · answered by Ese 1 · 0 0

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