What is the false positive rate?
How many times was Floyd tested?
Wasn't he tested on Saturday after getting the yellow jersey?
If testosterone only imparts benefit by taking for a few weeks why wouldn't he test positive earlier? Is that true?
If you believe that he was taking testosterone, why wouldn't he also take epitestosterone to keep the ratio correct?
2006-07-28 02:27:24 · 4 answers · asked by Moose C 3 in Sports ➔ Cycling
I can't/won't answer all your questions, but read the answers of an expert at the links below.
2006-07-28 03:41:17 · answer #1 · answered by metimoteo 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He did not "flunk" a test, as the news wants to put it. He had a result of an elevated level of testosterone that another cyclist said was consistent with fatigue - a reasonable result after such an effort! There are additional tests that will be done to see if the result really means drugs or not. So, except for the press and foolish people, he is not guilty so far. I agree with a lot of people who say that he is being hammered because of all the recent cases of doping by other people.
2006-07-28 05:01:03 · answer #2 · answered by DadOnline 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Floyd is innocent.
Testosterone levels can be high naturally because he is in pain from his hip... so the body can elevate testosterone to cope...
The second sample results should be out next week.
2006-07-28 02:40:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
what william b said
2006-07-29 07:42:41 · answer #4 · answered by bob s 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋