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If Jesus was GOD, then why in Mark 12:29 Jesus said "Here, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord." The words "our God" indicate that Jesus had a higher God over him, a stronger God than him. Jesus didn't say "Your God". He said "our God" which includes Jesus as the creation of GOD.

If Jesus was GOD, then why did he ask for GOD's Forgiveness in Luke 23:34? Please visit How can Jesus be GOD Almighty when he asked for GOD's Forgiveness?

If Jesus was GOD, then why Mark 15:34 says "And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice, "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?"—which means, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"

If Jesus was GOD, then did Paul say in 1 Corinthians 8:6 "yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live."

If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 20:17 Jesus said "Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet returned to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, 'I am returning to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.' "

If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 8:28 Jesus said "I do nothing of myself"? Can't GOD do anything he wills?

If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 14:28 Jesus said "My Father (GOD) is greater than I"?

If Jesus was GOD, then why in Luke 23:46 Jesus said "Father (GOD), into thy hands I commend my spirit"?

If Jesus was GOD, then why in Mark 10:18 Jesus said “And Jesus said to him, ‘Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.”?

Also in Luke 18:19 Jesus said only GOD Almighty is Good: ""Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good—except God alone."

If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 26:39 Jesus begged his GOD to have mercy on him and to pass the cup to death (kill Jesus in another words) before Jesus goes through the pain of crucifixion?

2006-07-27 04:31:21 · 30 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 18:38 he didn't reply when he was asked about the truth?

If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 24:36 Jesus told his followers that no one (including Jesus) knows when the judgment day will come, only GOD knows?

If Jesus was GOD, then why in Isaiah 11:2-3 GOD had put the spirit of fearing GOD in Jesus?
If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:31 Jesus told his followers that if he (Jesus) bears witness of himself, then his record is not true?

If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:30 Jesus told his followers that he can't do a single thing of his own initiative?

If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:36-38 Jesus said that GOD had assigned him (Jesus) work and GOD is a witness on Jesus?

If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:32 Jesus told his followers that they have never seen GOD at anytime nor ever heard his voice?

If Jesus was GOD, then why did he pray to his GOD in Luke 5:16?

2006-07-27 04:34:05 · update #1

Jesus said: "I and the Father are one" (Jn.10:30), therefore, is not Jesus the same, or, "co-equal" in status with his Father?
Answer No.1
In Greek, `heis' means `one' numerically (masc.)
`hen' means `one' in unity or essence (neut.)
Here the word used by John is `hen' and not `heis'. The marginal notes in New American Standard Bible (NASB) reads; one - (Lit.neuter) a unity, or, one essence.
If one wishes to argue that the word `hen' supports their claim for Jesus being "co-equal" in status with his Father, please invite his/her attention to the following verse:

Jesus said: "And the glory which Thou hast given me, I have given
to them (disciples); that they may be one, just as we are one." (John 17:22).

2006-07-27 04:41:33 · update #2

Question No.12
When prophet Moses asked God; What was His name? What shall he say to his people? From behind the Burning Bush God replied; "I AM THAT I AM." God also asked Moses to say to the sons of Israel: "I AM hath sent me unto you." Exodus 3:14.
When confronted by Jews; "Jesus said unto them, `Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." (John 8:58 K.J.V.). Jesus also said; "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins. (John 8:24, K.J.V.). Does that not prove, Jesus existed before his birth; he was the One who spoke to Moses from behind the Burning Bush; and if you do not believe that, you will die in your sins?

2006-07-27 09:27:08 · update #3

God came to prophet Jeremiah and said to him;

"Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were born I consecrated you; I have appointed you a prophet to the nations." Jeremiah 1:5.

I have question for you. How would you explain this ensuing statement? Jesus said to Jews; "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day, and he saw it, and was glad." (John 8:56)

Hot Tip
When Jews were doubtful about the identity of a particular blind beggar who had been healed by Jesus, the blind beggar - who was no more blind, kept saying; "I am he" (John 9:9, K.J.V.). Does that make the blind beggar, God! Further more, the beggar when questioned about Jesus who had healed him, replied to Jews; "And he said, "He is a prophet." (John 9:17).

2006-07-27 09:29:25 · update #4

God is claimed to have "begotten" Jesus (pbuh). Jesus (pbuh) is claimed to be the "Son" of God. "Beget" is a verb which implies an action. No matter how you define what God actually did in order to "beget" Jesus (pbuh), any definition must require that God Almighty performed some action and then Jesus (pbuh) came into being. Before God performed this action Jesus was not. After God performed this action Jesus came into being. Thus, not only is Jesus (pbuh) not eternal, since there was a time (before the "begetting") when he did not exist, but he can also never be co-eternal with God since God was in existence at a time when Jesus was not. This is very simple grade-school logic.

2006-07-27 09:33:33 · update #5

Even explaining the supposed "Trinity" away as a "mystery" does not hold water. In 1 Corinthians 14:33 we read "For God is not [the author] of confusion." Thus, confusion can never be His very nature.

2006-07-27 09:35:26 · update #6

30 answers

Because the idea that Jesus was divine was added to the religion centuries after his death. The books of the new testament were added and taken away with relative regularity by different church leaders; and there is even strong evidence to show that some books, such as the gospel of John and many of the epistles of Paul, were outright forgeries that were put in by church fathers with a specific agenda to sell.

2006-07-27 04:36:36 · answer #1 · answered by Eldritch 5 · 3 3

It is all explained by Paul in Phillipians chapter 2:5-11.

He existed in the form of God, but decided His equality with God was not to be retained

Rather He laid it aside and became a servant and took on himself the form of a man

During that time he was a separate person from God the Father. So he talked to God, asking (prayed) for Him to do the things he needed, directed people towards God the Father because in human form he had temporarily limited his power. And what he was able to do was only through the power of God the Holy Spirit that moved through him. All the scriptures you listed from the gospels agree with this. Jesus was God come as a man, separate from God the Father. (It is called the Trinity, one of the fundamental Christian doctrines.)

He was obedient to God the Father even to the point of dying on the cross. According to the Bible, during that time Jesus took on Himself the sin nature and was totally separate from God the Father for a time, thus he cried out "Why have you forsaken me".

Because of that obedience, he was raised from the dead and returned to his original position of equality with God. Yet remains a separate person as God the Son. So in the scriptures God the Father is often referred to with the simple title "God", while God the Son is referred to with the name "Jesus" of the title "Lord" or "Christ". Romans 9:5 speaks of Christ "who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen."

So sorry, there is no problem between those verses and what the Bible teaches about Jesus. He is God the Son.

2006-07-27 11:56:28 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 0

The thing is, there are plenty of other texts in which Jesus claims equality with the Father:

"I and my Father are one" (John 10:30). And it's clear what he meant, because the passage goes on:

Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus said to them, "I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?" "We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."

It was clear to the Jews of Jesus' time, at least, that he claimed equality with God. Further, Jesus' whole manner of speaking shows that he claims divine authority; for example, Matthew 5:21-22:

"You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, 'Do not murder, and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment.' But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment."

It was said -- by whom? By the Father. Jesus apparently claims the authority to reinterpret or overturn the Decalogue!

You see the problem. The scriptures witness simultaneously to two apparently contradictory things: on the one hand, Jesus is conscious of himself as a being separate from the Father, carrying out his will; on the other hand, he seems also to be conscious of himself as uniquely one with the Father.

John 10:34-38 Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods'? If he called them 'gods,' to whom the word of God came—and the Scripture cannot be broken— what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'? Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does. But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father."

You see the paradox? This is the problem that Christology had to deal with. This is why the Christological controversies lasted several hundred years in the ancient church -- they were struggling to forge a new language to express this paradox. And they didn't entirely succeed. If you say Jesus is "just" a man, you don't do justice to the scriptural witness. Likewise, if you say he's "just" God -- i.e., God appearing as a man, but not really a man -- you don't do justice to that witness either. Hence the Nicean and Chalcedonian solutions (see the first and second volumes of Pelikan's history of Christianity). But there are better solutions today, IMHO; the traditional solutions *did* err too much towards tritheism and monophysitism, in my opinion, not taking Jesus' humanity seriously enough.

Happy reading -- you've a long way to go!

2006-07-27 11:46:06 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Jesus had an origin; Micah 4:2 'And you, O Bethlehem.. the ONE who is to become RULER in Israel, whose ORIGIN is from early times, from the days of time indefinite.'

Jesus says he is 'The beginning of the Creation by God', Rev 3:14b.

How did Jesus get an origin? From his Father/God Almighty, and the Father did NOT have an origin.

The Father never had a beginning..Jude 25 'to the ONLY God our Savior, through Jesus Christ our Lord, be glory, majesty, might, and authority, for ALL PAST eternity, and now and into all eternity. Amen

Psalms 90:1 O YHWH/Jehovah..2b) Even from time indefinite to time indefinite you are God.

The Father said at ..Matthew 3:17 "This is my SON, the beloved, whom I have approved."

A Father is not his own Son.

2006-07-27 12:21:43 · answer #4 · answered by tina 3 · 0 0

I would advice you to read Hebrews1:8-13 You will find in these verses the god the father call Jesus a God. God is in three. God the father, the son, and the Holy Spirit. Jesus clearly said that his father is greater than Him.

2006-07-27 11:51:43 · answer #5 · answered by lucky 4 · 0 0

Exactly - and Paul (i believe it was) said when Jesus had put the all God's enemies - the last one being death - he (Jesus) would turn ALL his power and authority back to the the Father (God) and become as the rest of his brothers. God is not a man, the Bible says as much.

Jesus was purely the Son of God, a Son of Man, a Prophet, a man of great abiding faith like and superseding Moses - as Moses so indicated a Prophet like himself would come - referencing Jesus.

God's Spirit - dwelled in Jesus! Jesus was/is the quintessential ARK OF THE NEW TESTAMENT - whereas the Ark of the Covenant of the Old Testament, God dwelt (his Spirit) in the Ark. So God dwelt/ Dwells in Jesus, a house not made by human hands.

Jesus sits at the right hand of God and will return in due time. Its hard to accept things contrary to those earnest but false concepts taught us. I know. It was hard for me to accept but I kept praying and asking God to show me truth EVEN IF IT HURT! Even if it was contrary to what these sects teach.

Jesus is truth - and Jesus is the exact representative of the Father just as "the" angel of the Lord was in the Old Testament - who spoke as God, walked as God, but while was not God, he was the proxy of God - And this is who Jesus is. He was "the" angel of the Lord in the beginning, being incarnate as a man. Not God himself - but his exact representative.

And who were the Sons of God in the Old Testament? ANGELS!!! It says so early on in the book of Genesis.

2006-07-27 11:50:24 · answer #6 · answered by Victor ious 6 · 0 0

It's called the Holy Trinity
Matt...3:13-17....28:19

2006-07-27 11:36:00 · answer #7 · answered by snuggels102 6 · 1 0

Why do let yourself become so engrossed in a separation of this nature. God is like the intellegence of the cosmos, Jesus was a guy here on earth that had to deal with the hard questions that we humans have to deal with. These questions are a no-brainer for God. The rest of us are are as much PART OF, AND SEPARATED as we make it.

Now go do the right thing.

2006-07-27 11:40:01 · answer #8 · answered by omnimog 4 · 0 0

Answers to all your questions:
At the time of those incidents Jesus walked the earth as a man. He was 100% Man (who never sinned) and 100% God. We arent suppose to understand this. It's a God thing! Read John 1.

2006-07-27 11:38:36 · answer #9 · answered by Kitten 5 · 0 0

It isn't so much that Jesus isn't God, it's that we are all God (as a whole we make up God). Each of us has the power to do what Jesus did. Jesus just realized that we are all one with God, one with the universe and that he could tap into said power through love and knowing that what he brought forth it would be given unto him. Because God promised it would be, all he had to do was believe, as we must believe that we could do as Jesus did.

2006-07-27 12:10:18 · answer #10 · answered by Kelly K 3 · 0 0

Hi!

What a misunderstanding this is...I will explain to you the Person of Jesus Christ to you....

First of all, if you believe that God can do anything, then you must believe that He is able to come in a form of a human being...

1. Now, the Christ had to be HUMAN (otherwise He would not qualify to be the Christ)...and all humans must live their lives obeying GOD...

When He was on earth, as a human being, He had to live like someone UNDER authority of God, thus setting an example to us how we ought to live...

that is why He begged His Father in heaven to release Him from cruxifiction if it is His Will. Human beings are suppose to beg God for stuff because He is not obliged to give us more than what we deserve!Human beings are not suppose to ask for help from dead people like some do!

2. Jesus Christ was God manifest in the a human body:

1Timothy 3:16

1Ti 3:16

"Great indeed, we confess, is the MYSTERY of godliness:
He(God) was manifested in the flesh(Jesus), vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory."

Note this verse "God was manifested in the flesh"...

3. Jesus Christ often talked of Himself as if He was talking of someone else:

Look at this example:Jesus was talking of Himself when He said "The Son of Man"...

Matthew 24:44 "Therefore you also must be ready, for the SON OF MAN is coming at an hour you do not expect."

3. Proof that Jesus Christ was/is GOD:

Phi 2:6 "who, though He was in the form of God, did not count equality with God....,"

Jesus was God but did not count EQUALITY with God...just as much as before He came to earth in human form, He was God and always have, but decided to LOWER his DEITY(State of being God) so that He would learn to refuse temptations of sin under pressure....

So that, in Judgement Day, No man will have an excuse like:

"God you don't know what it's like to be human, You, God expected too much from us but if we did not have the flesh like You, we would not have committed sin"

This excuse will not work on judgement Day...

May we all stay in Christ as we see His arrival on earth coming.

Hug!

2006-07-27 12:17:31 · answer #11 · answered by Hope Dollar 2 · 0 0

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