Why is it just the Jews who claim their whole nation saw a revelation of G-d?

Question

Every other religion just has one guy (ie. Jesus) who claimed he spoke to G-d. But its written in exact words in the Old Testament Torah that every single Jew expirienced a revelation of G-d at Mt. Sinai. If there are so many made up religions, why doesn't at least one of them make such a bold and convincing statement that their whole nation saw G-d too, just like the Jews?

--------------------------
To Carol M

You think I am making this up? Read the Old Testemant Deuteronomy 5:1-4 I will quote "Moses called all of Israel and said to them "Hear or Israel, the decrees and the ordinances that I speak in your ears today-learn them and be careful to preform them. The Lord your G-d sealed a convenant with us at Mt. Sinai. Not with out forefathers did G-d seal this convenant, but with us-we who are here, all of us alive today. Face to face did G-d speak to you on the mountain amid the fire."

Also check ibid 4:9-13 or ibid 4:32-36

-----------------------------
I am not sure how Christianity can be a continuation to anything when the Old Testament as well says explicitly the Torah will never be changed, the Torah will never be called Old and a New one will never replace it. Something is not right.

-------------------------------------
To mck meg

I think Jesus existed too, but to say that he was G-d and that he changed the Torah is just wrong. The Torah says it will never be changed, and the first of the ten commandments of the Torah is that I (G-d) am ONE. There is no other G-d to men. So to say Jesus was also G-d? Does not sound right. And there is a big difference with a couple of apostiles and groups of people expiriencing miracles preformed by Jesus than a whole nation seeing an hearing G-d at Mt. Sinai. Think about this.

------------------------------
To Joshua

You are missing the whole point. You are not understanding that there is a big difference in the fact that the Jews all heard and saw G-d as a nation, but the Christians are all turning to one person who claims he saw G-d. My question was, why is that so? Or let me put it this way, if G-d revealed himself to all the Jews at Mt. Sinai, why could he not do that again when he wanted to "change" the Torah with Jesus, why was it limited to them?

And why did G-d lie to the Jews by saying nothing in the Torah is changeable and then speak to Jesus to change it? And don't even try to tell me Jesus did not change the laws of the Torah because then why is the Sabbath on Sunday and not Saturday? Why do Christians not have to eat Kosher? Huh? Old Testement says explicitly the Sabbath is on Saturday?

He changed a ton. Stop denying it. Look further for more response, running out of characters.

--------------------------
More for Joshua

Your Jeremiah quote-dude, read the Tanach (that basically means bible-you better know Hebrew by the way if you want to start quoting the bible which was written in Hebrew. This actually leads me to another point of how do you feel you have the right to quote the Bible when you may not even know Hebrew. What makes you so confident your "translation" is the correct one? Why not learn the language and read straight from the source?) That part of Jeremiah of the new convenant is talking about when the Messiah does come, and unless you want to tell me Jesus led all of us into a utopian world in which we are living now-which is the Bible definition of what the Messiah is supposed to do, Jesus does not fit at all in that quote from Jeremiah. Yah when the Messiah comes then we will have a new convenant with G-d. But in the mean time, the Messiah has clearly not come. And your in complete denial if you think it has.

Think about it.

--------------
For Joshua again

The Old Testemant can ofcourse be translated, but that only works if its not mistranslated. Also it only works if its not taken out of context. Think about this, compare and contrast your version of the bible to the Hebrew one.

I will quote from Micah what the Messianic era is supposed to be like. You be the judge if that has happened now. "Nation shall not lift sword against nation, nor shall they learn war anymore. But they shall sit under their own vines and own fig trees, and no one shall make them afraid, for the mouth of God of Hosts has spoken (Micah 4:4). I don't think there is much to think about here.

Your quotes from the New Testement mean nothing to this matter. They were written by humans, they are not the source, they are not from G-d. They do change the solid rule in the Old Testement that not a rule or law can be changed, and those who do change them are false and wrong. I therefore find your quotations from the New Testemant invalid.

Answer 1

Because Judaism is based on National revelation. It does not make sense for G-d to use a single point of failure to get his message across.

Answer 2

taken right out of Permission to Receive - copy cat.

no just kidding.

The fact is Christianity dose not play up this point because then they would have to face serious issues about why G-d did not have just as great of a national revelation to proclaim their Messianic age and instead died like a lowly criminal.

even its funny to note that the multitudes of miracles and witnesses that were their the only evidence we have of it is the NT. At a time when history was already being well documented something like separate recorded eye witness accounts of Jesus miracles do not exist. Also their is not a single person to this day that can claim a tradition that they are descended from one of those eye witnesses.

I wonder if people found the the Harry Potter series 1,000 years from now would some think that it actually happened?

Answer 3

Christianity is in fact a continuation of Judaism. The Torah has the prophecies, Jesus fulfilled them. End of Story. So Christianity makes that same statement in essence, and in fact more: Jesus was God in the flesh, and so all who saw him saw a glimpse of God. the 5,000 and their fish, the 500 after the ressurection, the 12 apostles, Herod, Pilate, and so on. Historical records outside of the Bible agree that Jesus existed, and the New Testament confirms it.

Answer 4

let start with the fact that christianity and islam accepts the truth of the 5 books of moses
then read where its says that over 600,000 males attended mount sinai
then realize that if there were 600,000 males between age 20 -60
then there that many females
and figure in people younger and older
and youve got at least 2 million
now do ya think moses and hollywood could fool 2 million + individuals

I dont think so

you wanna know why jews dont accept jesus or mohammed or budda??
if you wanna change judiasm
get a miracle working dude with 2 million witnesses and we'll talk

Answer 5

Jesus is God, to repeat another answerer.
Your difficulty is that you have not begun to understand the nature of God. He is ONE in essence and three in person. The essence is the "what" of God. He is loving, just, merciful, gracious, faithful, etc. etc. The person of God is the "who" of God. Jesus makes specific separations between Father, Son and Holy Spirit. So because Jesus has the essence of God then everyone who saw Him saw God (John 14:9).
I do agree that Jesus did not change the Torah (first five books, written by Moses). He says that He did not and instead that He fulfilled it (Matthew 5:17). A continuation does not mean that the old was changed. Indeed the rest of the Old Testament is a continuation of the revelation of the Torah.
Also, I noticed that you objected to the "Old" and "New" Covenants but Jeremiah wrote that there would be a new covenant (Jeremiah 31:31-33).
I would think that these three passages are solution enough to your question.
For further thought consider how Jesus was raised from the dead and what a great revelation that is for God the Father to establish the proof of all the things Jesus taught.
Lastly, by refusing Jesus as God, our Messiah, people deny their own way to heaven. What way to heaven did the Torah provide except trusting God to provide the perfect sacrifice for sins and reconciliation to Himself? How could there be a more perfect sacrifice than Jesus the GOD-Man?

continued...

I did not miss the point. I explained how Jesus is in fact God and how many people saw him (1 Corinthians 15:6). If you read my previous reference to John 14:9, Jesus says "He who has seen Me has seen the Father". Further, one generation of Jews saw God. That generation, through Moses, communicated it to the whole world. This is just like God the Father appearing in Jesus bodily to one generation and that generation telling the world. Kathy, below, wants more than 2 million people. Was it the people who made it important? The same God is in both. Also, the miracle of the Christian church is at least as amazing (though, like those at Mt. Sinai, far from perfect). I will continue to stick with my previous answer that Jesus fulfilled the Torah, not changed it.
To summarize, Jesus is the incarnation of God and therefore many, many people saw Him, though many did not believe (even as many did not believe after Mt. Sinai). His work on earth was the fulfillment of the Torah as well as the fulfillment of the prophesies of God's prophets. Not only did Jesus appear, God in flesh, but He did miracles, witnessed by many (many witnesses even outside the Christian faith) and rose from the dead, also witnessed by many. If Jesus was not God, as He told people He IS (John 10:30), then why would God affirm His claims by raising Him from the dead?
The difference between the fulfillment of the Torah and the "changing" of it is very important. The New Testament book of Hebrews reveals much of the fulfillment attained by Jesus Christ. Jesus never preached on changing any laws. He did, however, send the Holy Spirit to the apostles who wrote the last revelations from God. In these we discover that Jesus' blood fulfilled all sacrifices. So no more sacrifices are needed (if they were then why would God allow the Temple to be in disrepair for almost two thousand years now?). All 613 precepts of the Law were established to set Israel apart as holy to God (Leviticus 11:44, 11:45, 19:2, 20:7, 20:26 etc.), to shut every one's mouth (from boasting), make the whole world accountable to God and drive everyone to a faith placed fully in Jesus (Romans 3:19, Galatians 3:24). All those with faith in Jesus are made holy. This renders the Law, except what is reiterated in the New Testament (the moral law), fulfilled.
As to quoting the Bible, why must I know Hebrew? Is God's word untranslatable? NEVER! Scholars, both Jewish and Christian have translated the Bible into many usable versions that correspond to the Hebrew. In depth study does require the study of Hebrew as well. I would like to hear your Biblical quote arguments, especially those based on nuances of the Hebrew language.
Specific to my Jeremiah quote, you may have missed one of my points - Jesus was the Messiah. Therefore, just as you correctly interpret Jeremiah, we are now in the New Covenant.
I would like to see where the Bible says that a utopian world would immediately follow the Messiah. Much more, I would like to hear your explanation of why the prophets (David and Isaiah) foretell the torment and death of the Messiah in Psalm 22 and Isaiah 53.
In the end, who you think Jesus is will determine your future relationship to God, heaven or hell. "How do you say that I am?" (Matthew 16:15-16).

Answer 6

first of all, God's covenant with the youngsters of Israel has *no longer* been performed away with. It grow to be unconditional and everlasting. I admit some Christians think of in any different case. yet people who recognize the scriptures comprehend this fact. I do comprehend which you haven't got faith that Jesus grow to be the messiah. And there are prophecies which Jesus did no longer fulfill in His earthly ministry. i think, to you, the Church's coaching that those prophesies would be fulfilled at Christ's 2nd coming ought to look like a case of particular pleading. on the top of the day, all of it comes all the way down to the resurrection. If Jesus grow to be extremely raised from the ineffective, would not that provide credibility to His declare to be the messiah? The Church is God's way of extending the blessing of Abraham previous the borders of Israel to the gentiles. yet that does no longer imply that He has forgotten His grants to Israel. some distance from it. Israel would be blessed between the international locations. i'm according to it. For her blessing often is the blessing of the finished earth. As to the Mormons and JWs. Their leaders weren't raised from the ineffective. The God they espouse bears no resemblence to the Holy certainly one of Israel. there is extremely no assessment between Israel/Christianity and those communities. I desire it have been plausible to communicate this without offending people who fairly have faith and stick to the training of Messrs Smith and Russel, yet there is not any longer. Neither Joseph Smith nor Charles Russel have been something like Jesus of Nazareth. And the religions they based mirror that fact. peace

Answer 7

Maybe Becuase the entire Jewish People did see a revelation of God

Answer 8

because the jews were the only ones who God revealed himself to on a wholesale level.
But don't forget that Jesus was a jew and he didn't claim to just speak to God. He claimed to BE God. and then he was revealed as salvation to the world on a wholesale level... think paul and the apostles going to the gentiles and teaching about Christ.
but that is a great point and i like it. thanks for giving me something to think about.

Answer 9

Sorry mate,
it is not just the Jewish people !

I just spoke to god (again) , and He
explained that he was only kidding
and sends his apologies , for being
misunderstood.

I visited Heaven, but I did not like it there
so now I am back. All enquiries welcome...

Answer 10

Maybe because it is true. I do not doubt it. I'll bet they wish they were getting a revelation right about now.